Nursing Elites

1. Based on the interpretation of this strip, what action should be implemented first?

• A. Call a code.
• B. Start CPR.
• C. Administer IV fluids.
• D. Apply oxygen.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Call a code.' In the context of ventricular fibrillation (V-Fib), immediate defibrillation is crucial. Calling a code is the first step to activating the emergency response team, including individuals trained to provide defibrillation. Starting CPR (Choice B) may be necessary but should follow defibrillation. Administering IV fluids (Choice C) and applying oxygen (Choice D) are important interventions in cardiac arrest cases, but in V-Fib, the priority is defibrillation to restore normal heart rhythm.

2. A client who had surgery yesterday is becoming increasingly anxious. The client’s respiratory rate has increased to 38 breaths/minute. The client has a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction with 500 ml of yellow-green drainage over the last four hours. The client's arterial blood gases (ABGs) indicate a decreased CO2 and an increased serum pH. Which serum laboratory value should the nurse monitor first?

• A. Electrolytes.
• B. Creatinine.
• C. Blood urea nitrogen.
• D. Glucose.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Electrolytes. In this scenario, the client is at risk for metabolic alkalosis due to the loss of gastric secretions through the nasogastric tube. Monitoring electrolytes is crucial to assess the levels of sodium, potassium, chloride, and bicarbonate, which are important in maintaining the acid-base balance of the body. Changes in these electrolyte levels can provide valuable information about the client's fluid status and acid-base balance. Creatinine, blood urea nitrogen, and glucose levels are important parameters to monitor in different situations but are not the priority in this case of potential metabolic alkalosis.

3. The settings on a client's synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV) are respiratory rate 12 breaths/minute, tidal volume at 600 mL, FiO2 35%, and positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) 5 cm H2O. Which assessment finding necessitates immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Bilateral crackles in the lung bases.
• B. Low-pressure indicator alarm.
• C. Oxygen saturation of 91%.
• D. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low-pressure alarm may indicate a disconnection or leak in the system, which needs immediate intervention. Bilateral crackles in the lung bases may indicate fluid overload but do not require immediate intervention in this case. An oxygen saturation of 91% is concerning but not as urgent as a potential equipment issue. A respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute is higher than the set rate but may not necessitate immediate intervention unless accompanied by other distress symptoms.

4. Which nursing problem has the highest priority when planning care for a client with Meniere’s disease?

• A. Potential for injury related to vertigo.
• B. Alteration in comfort due to ear pain.
• C. Impaired skin integrity due to immobility.
• D. Anxiety due to fear of falling.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. When caring for a client with Meniere’s disease, the highest priority nursing problem is the potential for injury related to vertigo. Meniere’s disease is characterized by symptoms like vertigo, which can increase the risk of falls and injuries. Ensuring the client's safety and preventing falls take precedence over other concerns. Choices B, C, and D are not the highest priority because they do not directly address the immediate risk of harm associated with vertigo and falls.

5. The nurse caring for a hospitalized older client with a left hip fracture as a result of a fall at home notices different assessment findings. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Pain rated 7/10 on the pain scale.
• B. Mild swelling at the fracture site.
• C. Small amount of bleeding from the surgical site.
• D. Left extremity capillary refill greater than 5 seconds.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A left extremity capillary refill greater than 5 seconds indicates poor blood flow to the extremity, which is a sign of compromised circulation. This finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse to prevent complications such as tissue damage or necrosis. Choices A, B, and C are important assessments but do not indicate an immediate need for intervention like the delayed capillary refill in choice D.

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