Nursing Elites

1. A client who was discharged 8 months ago with cirrhosis and ascites is admitted with anorexia and recent hemoptysis. The client is drowsy but responds to verbal stimuli. The nurse programs a blood pressure monitor to take readings every 15 minutes. Which assessment should the nurse implement first?

• A. Evaluate distal capillary refill for delayed perfusion
• B. Check the extremities for bruising and petechiae
• C. Examine the peritibial regions for pitting edema
• D. Palpate the abdomen for tenderness and rigidity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with a history of cirrhosis and ascites presenting with anorexia and recent hemoptysis, palpating the abdomen for tenderness and rigidity is crucial as it helps in identifying signs of complications related to these conditions. Assessing for abdominal tenderness and rigidity can provide valuable information about the presence of internal bleeding, ascites complications, or liver enlargement. Evaluating distal capillary refill, checking for bruising and petechiae, or examining peritibial regions for pitting edema are important assessments but are not the priority in this case, given the client's history and current symptoms.

2. What is a priority action for the nurse when caring for a client with suspected meningitis?

• A. Isolate the client in a private room
• B. Administer intravenous antibiotics
• C. Obtain a throat culture
• D. Perform a chest x-ray

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering intravenous antibiotics is the priority when caring for a client with suspected meningitis. The prompt administration of antibiotics is crucial to treat bacterial meningitis and prevent potential complications. Isolating the client in a private room may be necessary to prevent the spread of infection, but antibiotic administration takes precedence. Obtaining a throat culture and performing a chest x-ray are important diagnostic measures, but they do not address the immediate need for antibiotic therapy in suspected bacterial meningitis.

3. How often should the casts be changed for a newborn with talipes who is wearing casts?

• A. Daily
• B. Weekly
• C. Biweekly
• D. Monthly

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Weekly. Treatment of talipes involves manipulation and applying short leg casts. The casts need to be changed weekly to allow for further manipulation and to accommodate the rapid growth of the infant. Changing the casts daily (choice A) would be too frequent and may not provide enough time for the correction to take place. Changing the casts biweekly (choice C) or monthly (choice D) would not provide adequate support for the ongoing correction process required for talipes.

4. On the first postoperative day, the nurse finds an older male client disoriented and trying to climb over the bed railing. Previously, he was oriented to person, place, and time on admission. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer a sedative.
• B. Determine the client’s blood pressure.
• C. Apply soft restraints.
• D. Call for assistance.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention the nurse should implement first is to determine the client’s blood pressure. Assessing the blood pressure is crucial in this situation to rule out physiological causes like hypotension leading to the client's disorientation. Administering a sedative (Choice A) without understanding the underlying cause may worsen the situation. Applying soft restraints (Choice C) should not be the initial action and can be considered later if necessary. Calling for assistance (Choice D) may be needed eventually, but assessing the client's blood pressure takes precedence to address the immediate concern.

5. The healthcare provider prescribes the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) naproxen (Naprosyn) 500 mg PO twice a day for a client with osteoarthritis. During a follow-up visit one month later, the client tells the nurse, 'The pills don't seem to be working. They are not helping the pain at all.' Which factor should influence the nurse’s response?

• A. Noncompliance is probably impacting the optimum medication effectiveness.
• B. Drug dosage is inadequate and needs to be increased to four times a day.
• C. The drug needs 4 to 6 weeks to reach therapeutic levels in the bloodstream.
• D. NSAID response is variable, and another NSAID may be more effective.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. NSAID response can vary among individuals, and sometimes a different NSAID may be more effective for a specific client. In this case, since the current NSAID (naproxen) is not providing pain relief, it is reasonable to consider switching to another NSAID. Choice A is incorrect because there is no information provided to suggest noncompliance. Choice B is incorrect as increasing the dosage without assessing the response may lead to unnecessary side effects. Choice C is incorrect because although it may take time for NSAIDs to reach therapeutic levels, lack of pain relief after a month is a valid reason to consider changing the medication rather than waiting longer.

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