Nursing Elites

1. An 82-year-old female client with type 2 diabetes and degenerative arthritis complains to the nurse that she has a hard time cutting her toenails. What should the nurse recommend?

• A. Seek routine nail care with a podiatrist.
• B. Encourage monthly pedicures at a nail salon.
• C. Soak feet for 10 minutes before cutting nails.
• D. Ask a family member to cut toenails.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For an 82-year-old female client with type 2 diabetes and degenerative arthritis, the nurse should recommend seeking routine nail care with a podiatrist. This is crucial to ensure proper and safe toenail care, reducing the risk of injury and infection, which is especially important for diabetic clients. Encouraging monthly pedicures at a nail salon (choice B) may not address the underlying issues related to diabetes and arthritis. Soaking feet for 10 minutes before cutting nails (choice C) may help soften the nails but does not address the difficulty the client faces in cutting them. Asking a family member to cut toenails (choice D) may not guarantee the expertise needed for proper diabetic foot care, which a podiatrist can provide.

2. Which dietary modification is most appropriate for a client with nephrotic syndrome?

• A. High protein, low sodium
• B. Low protein, high sodium
• C. High protein, high potassium
• D. Low protein, low sodium

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate dietary modification for a client with nephrotic syndrome is a low protein, low sodium diet. This diet helps reduce the workload on the kidneys and manage edema, which are common issues in nephrotic syndrome. Choice A, high protein, low sodium, is not recommended because excessive protein intake can further strain the kidneys. Choice B, low protein, high sodium, is inappropriate as high sodium can worsen fluid retention and hypertension. Choice C, high protein, high potassium, is not ideal as high potassium levels can be problematic for individuals with kidney issues.

3. The nurse is recording a history for a child who has been diagnosed with recurrent abdominal pain (RAP). What is a finding that is characteristic of this disorder?

• A. Morning headaches
• B. Pain for 3 consecutive months
• C. Febrile episodes in the late afternoon
• D. Diaphoresis when attacks occur

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pain for 3 consecutive months. Recurrent abdominal pain (RAP) is characterized by abdominal pain that occurs at least once per week for at least 2 months before diagnosis. Choosing option A is incorrect since morning headaches are not a common characteristic of RAP. Option C is incorrect because febrile episodes in the late afternoon are not typically associated with RAP. Option D is incorrect as diaphoresis (excessive sweating) when attacks occur is not a common finding in RAP.

4. What pathophysiologic process is producing the symptoms of gout in a client with sudden onset of big toe joint pain and swelling?

• A. Deposition of crystals in the synovial space of the joints produces inflammation and irritation.
• B. Degeneration of joint cartilage causing inflammation.
• C. Infection of the joint space leading to inflammation.
• D. Increased synovial fluid causing joint swelling and pain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Gout is characterized by the deposition of uric acid crystals in the synovial fluid of joints, which triggers inflammation and pain. This process is known as crystal-induced arthritis. Choice B is incorrect as gout does not involve degeneration of joint cartilage. Choice C is incorrect as gout is not caused by an infection of the joint space. Choice D is incorrect as gout does not result from increased synovial fluid but rather from the deposition of uric acid crystals.

5. An adolescent female asks the nurse about taking retinoic acid (Accutane). What guidance should be provided by the nurse?

• A. The medication should be used for 10 weeks only.
• B. The medication requires that sexually active females use contraception.
• C. The medication lowers hemoglobin levels very quickly.
• D. The medication has few side effects.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct guidance the nurse should provide is that sexually active females must use contraception while taking Accutane and for 1 month after the 20 weeks it is prescribed. Choice A is incorrect because Accutane is typically taken for a longer duration than 10 weeks. Choice C is incorrect because Accutane does not lower hemoglobin levels quickly. Choice D is incorrect as Accutane is known for having many side effects, including the risk of birth defects.

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