Nursing Elites

1. Which nursing intervention promotes achievement of the goal 'optimal mobility' for a client who had a total hip replacement 8 hours ago?

• A. Encourage the client to use an abductor pillow when ambulating.
• B. Teach the client to perform leg exercises in bed.
• C. Assist the client to sit at the edge of the bed.
• D. Assist the client to turn while an abductor pillow is between the legs.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assisting the client to turn while an abductor pillow is between the legs is the correct intervention to promote optimal mobility for a client who had a total hip replacement 8 hours ago. Using an abductor pillow helps maintain hip alignment and prevents dislocation, which are crucial considerations in the early postoperative period. Encouraging the client to use an abductor pillow when turning is more beneficial compared to the other options: teaching leg exercises in bed, encouraging the use of a walker when ambulating, or assisting the client to sit at the edge of the bed, as these interventions may not directly address the specific needs of a client after a total hip replacement.

2. What should the nurse assess in an infant who has been diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis?

• A. A history of diarrhea following each feeding
• B. Gastric pain evidenced by vigorous crying
• C. Poor appetite due to a poor sucking reflex
• D. An olive-shaped mass right of the midline

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. In hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, a key assessment finding is an olive-shaped mass in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen, to the right of the midline. This mass is palpable and represents the hypertrophied pyloric muscle. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because although they may be present in infants with feeding problems, the definitive assessment for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is the presence of an olive-shaped mass on the right side of the abdomen, not a history of diarrhea, gastric pain, or poor appetite.

3. After a CT scan with intravenous contrast medium, a client returns to the room complaining of shortness of breath and itching. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Call respiratory therapy to administer a breathing treatment.
• B. Send for an emergency tracheostomy set.
• C. Prepare a dose of epinephrine.
• D. Review the client's complete list of allergies.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Preparing a dose of epinephrine is the correct intervention in this situation as the client is displaying symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction to the contrast medium used during the CT scan. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis due to its ability to reverse the symptoms rapidly. Calling respiratory therapy for a breathing treatment (Choice A) may not address the underlying allergic reaction and delay appropriate treatment. Sending for an emergency tracheostomy set (Choice B) is not indicated as the client's symptoms suggest an allergic reaction rather than airway obstruction. Reviewing the client's complete list of allergies (Choice D) is important but would not provide immediate relief for the client's current symptoms; administering epinephrine takes precedence in this situation.

4. What is the most common clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta?

• A. Clubbing of the digits
• B. Upper extremity hypertension
• C. Pedal edema and portal congestion
• D. Loud systolic ejection murmur

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Upper extremity hypertension. Coarctation of the aorta leads to increased blood pressure in the upper extremities. The pressure in the arms is typically 20 mm Hg higher than in the legs. Choice A, clubbing of the digits, is not a common clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta. Choice C, pedal edema, and portal congestion are more suggestive of conditions like heart failure rather than coarctation of the aorta. Choice D, loud systolic ejection murmur, can be heard in conditions like aortic stenosis, but it is not the most common clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta.

5. A male client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) and Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia has a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter. The client asks the nurse why he keeps getting these massive infections. Which pathophysiologic mechanism should the nurse describe in response to the client's question?

• A. Bone marrow suppression of white blood cells causes insufficient cells to phagocytize organisms.
• B. Exposure to multiple environmental infectious agents overburdens the immune system until it fails.
• C. The humoral immune response lacks B cells that form antibodies and opportunistic infections result.
• D. Inadequate numbers of T lymphocytes are available to initiate cellular immunity and macrophages.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: With a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter, the client's immune system is severely compromised, leading to opportunistic infections.

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