Nursing Elites

1. A client with a new colostomy is concerned about odor. What is the best advice the nurse can provide?

• A. Avoid high-fiber foods
• B. Use an odor-proof pouch
• C. Decrease fluid intake
• D. Increase dairy products in the diet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best advice the nurse can provide to a client concerned about odor from a new colostomy is to use an odor-proof pouch. This option helps control odors effectively by containing and masking any unpleasant smells. Avoiding high-fiber foods (Choice A) is not the best advice as fiber is essential for bowel health, and decreasing fluid intake (Choice C) can lead to dehydration and other complications. Increasing dairy products in the diet (Choice D) is not directly related to controlling odors from a colostomy.

2. In the change of shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?

• A. Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.
• B. Intact skin with non-blanchable redness.
• C. Full-thickness tissue loss with visible fat.
• D. Full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.' Stage 2 pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss and typically appear as shallow open ulcers with a red-pink wound bed. Choice B describes a stage 1 ulcer, where the skin is intact but shows non-blanchable redness. Choice C describes a stage 3 ulcer, with full-thickness tissue loss exposing fat. Choice D is characteristic of a stage 4 ulcer, where there is full-thickness tissue loss exposing bone, tendon, or muscle. Therefore, option A best fits the description of a stage 2 pressure ulcer.

3. A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed methimazole. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Agranulocytosis
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Agranulocytosis. Methimazole, used to treat hyperthyroidism, can lead to agranulocytosis, a severe decrease in white blood cells. This condition increases the risk of infections and requires immediate medical attention. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is not a common adverse effect of methimazole. Bradycardia (choice C) is unlikely as methimazole tends to have minimal effects on heart rate. Hypercalcemia (choice D) is not associated with methimazole use.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis. Which laboratory result is most indicative of this condition?

• A. Elevated serum amylase
• B. Decreased serum bilirubin
• C. Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• D. Decreased alkaline phosphatase

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevated serum amylase is the most indicative laboratory result of acute pancreatitis. In this condition, the pancreas becomes inflamed, leading to the leakage of amylase and lipase into the bloodstream. Elevated serum amylase levels are a classic finding in acute pancreatitis. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with acute pancreatitis. Decreased serum bilirubin, increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN), and decreased alkaline phosphatase levels are not specific markers for acute pancreatitis.

5. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin. Which side effect should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Gingival hyperplasia
• C. Weight gain
• D. Blurred vision

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gingival hyperplasia. Phenytoin is known to cause gingival hyperplasia, which is an overgrowth of gum tissue. This side effect is important to report to the healthcare provider because it can lead to oral health problems. Choice A, drowsiness, is a common side effect of many antiepileptic drugs but is not specific to phenytoin. Choice C, weight gain, is not a typical side effect of phenytoin. Choice D, blurred vision, is not a common side effect of phenytoin; it is more commonly associated with other medications.

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