Nursing Elites

1. What is the major criterion for diagnosing cognitive impairment in a child?

• A. An IQ of 75 or less
• B. Subaverage functioning
• C. An IQ of 70 or less
• D. Onset before 18

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct criterion for diagnosing cognitive impairment in a child is having an IQ of 70 or less. This range is typically used to define cognitive impairment in children. Choice A ('An IQ of 75 or less') is incorrect as the threshold is generally set at 70 or below. Choice B ('Subaverage functioning') is vague and does not specifically address the IQ criterion. Choice D ('Onset before 18') is unrelated to the primary criterion of IQ level used in diagnosing cognitive impairment in children.

2. The healthcare provider prescribes Cytovene 375 mg every 12 hours to infuse over 90 minutes. The pharmacy delivers Cytovene 375 mg in a 150 mL IV bag. How many ml/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump?

• A. 50 ml/hour.
• B. 75 ml/hour.
• C. 100 ml/hour.
• D. 125 ml/hour.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To infuse 150 mL over 90 minutes, the pump should be set to 100 ml/hour (150 mL / 1.5 hours). This rate ensures that the medication is delivered at the proper rate as prescribed. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the volume of the IV bag and the infusion duration provided in the question.

3. The nurse explains to the parents of a child with developmental hip dysplasia that the application of a Pavlik harness is necessary. In what position will the harness hold the child's femurs?

• A. Abduction
• B. Adduction
• C. Flexion
• D. Extension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Abduction. The use of the Pavlik harness is to maintain the hips in abduction for 4 to 6 months to treat developmental hip dysplasia. This position helps in stabilizing the hip joint and promoting proper growth and development. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the Pavlik harness specifically aims to hold the child's femurs in abduction, not adduction, flexion, or extension.

4. The nurse is teaching a client how to collect a sputum specimen. Which steps should the nurse instruct the client to follow when collecting sputum?

• A. Breathe deeply, followed by swallowing.
• B. Breathe deeply, followed by spitting into a cup.
• C. Breathe deeply, followed by coughing up the sputum.
• D. Breathe deeply, followed by clearing the throat.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to breathe deeply followed by coughing up the sputum. This method ensures that the specimen is collected from the lower respiratory tract and is not contaminated by saliva. Choice A (swallowing) does not result in sputum collection, while choice B (spitting into a cup) may lead to saliva contamination. Choice D (clearing the throat) is not an effective way to collect sputum as it may involve getting rid of saliva, not sputum.

5. The settings on a client's synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV) are respiratory rate 12 breaths/minute, tidal volume at 600 mL, FiO2 35%, and positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) 5 cm H2O. Which assessment finding necessitates immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Bilateral crackles in the lung bases.
• B. Low-pressure indicator alarm.
• C. Oxygen saturation of 91%.
• D. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low-pressure alarm may indicate a disconnection or leak in the system, which needs immediate intervention. Bilateral crackles in the lung bases may indicate fluid overload but do not require immediate intervention in this case. An oxygen saturation of 91% is concerning but not as urgent as a potential equipment issue. A respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute is higher than the set rate but may not necessitate immediate intervention unless accompanied by other distress symptoms.

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