Nursing Elites

1. What is the major criterion for diagnosing cognitive impairment in a child?

• A. An IQ of 75 or less
• B. Subaverage functioning
• C. An IQ of 70 or less
• D. Onset before 18

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct criterion for diagnosing cognitive impairment in a child is having an IQ of 70 or less. This range is typically used to define cognitive impairment in children. Choice A ('An IQ of 75 or less') is incorrect as the threshold is generally set at 70 or below. Choice B ('Subaverage functioning') is vague and does not specifically address the IQ criterion. Choice D ('Onset before 18') is unrelated to the primary criterion of IQ level used in diagnosing cognitive impairment in children.

2. During a paracentesis, two liters of fluid are removed from the abdomen of a client with ascites. A drainage bag is placed, and 50 ml of straw-colored fluid drains within the first hour. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Palpate for abdominal distention
• B. Send fluid to the lab for analysis
• C. Continue to monitor the fluid output
• D. Clamp the drainage tube for 5 minutes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Continuing to monitor the fluid output is the appropriate action in this situation. Monitoring the fluid output helps the nurse assess the client's ongoing response to the procedure and detect any sudden changes, such as increased or decreased drainage rate, which could indicate complications. Palpating for abdominal distention, sending fluid to the lab for analysis, or clamping the drainage tube are not necessary actions at this point, as the priority is to monitor the client's condition post-procedure.

3. The settings on a client's synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV) are respiratory rate 12 breaths/minute, tidal volume at 600 mL, FiO2 35%, and positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) 5 cm H2O. Which assessment finding necessitates immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Bilateral crackles in the lung bases.
• B. Low-pressure indicator alarm.
• C. Oxygen saturation of 91%.
• D. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low-pressure alarm may indicate a disconnection or leak in the system, which needs immediate intervention. Bilateral crackles in the lung bases may indicate fluid overload but do not require immediate intervention in this case. An oxygen saturation of 91% is concerning but not as urgent as a potential equipment issue. A respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute is higher than the set rate but may not necessitate immediate intervention unless accompanied by other distress symptoms.

4. The nurse is teaching a client with glomerulonephritis about self-care. Which dietary recommendations should the nurse encourage the client to follow?

• A. Increase intake of high-fiber foods, such as bran cereal
• B. Restrict protein intake by limiting meats and other high-protein foods.
• C. Limit oral fluid intake to 500ml per day
• D. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods such as bananas and cantaloupe.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Restrict protein intake by limiting meats and other high-protein foods. In glomerulonephritis, reducing protein intake helps to lower the workload on the kidneys, as excessive protein can lead to increased production of waste products that the kidneys must filter. This restriction can help prevent further damage to the kidneys. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because: A) Increasing high-fiber foods like bran cereal is beneficial for other conditions but not specific to glomerulonephritis. C) Limiting oral fluid intake to 500ml per day is not appropriate as fluid restrictions are usually individualized based on the client's condition and kidney function. D) Increasing potassium-rich foods like bananas and cantaloupe may not be suitable for all clients with glomerulonephritis, as potassium levels can be affected in kidney disease and individual needs may vary.

5. What is the best position for a client experiencing a nosebleed?

• A. Sitting up and leaning forward
• B. Lying flat with a pillow under the head
• C. Sitting up and leaning back
• D. Lying on the side with the head elevated

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best position for a client experiencing a nosebleed is sitting up and leaning forward. This position helps prevent blood from flowing down the throat and reduces the risk of aspiration. Choice B is incorrect as lying flat can lead to blood flowing down the throat. Choice C is also incorrect because leaning back may cause blood to flow backward into the throat. Choice D is incorrect as lying on the side with the head elevated is not the optimal position to manage a nosebleed effectively.

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