Nursing Elites

1. What is the major criterion for diagnosing cognitive impairment in a child?

• A. An IQ of 75 or less
• B. Subaverage functioning
• C. An IQ of 70 or less
• D. Onset before 18

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct criterion for diagnosing cognitive impairment in a child is having an IQ of 70 or less. This range is typically used to define cognitive impairment in children. Choice A ('An IQ of 75 or less') is incorrect as the threshold is generally set at 70 or below. Choice B ('Subaverage functioning') is vague and does not specifically address the IQ criterion. Choice D ('Onset before 18') is unrelated to the primary criterion of IQ level used in diagnosing cognitive impairment in children.

2. A client is admitted to the medical unit during an exacerbation of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). It is most important to report which assessment finding to the healthcare provider?

• A. Low-grade fever.
• B. Muscle atrophy.
• C. Hematuria.
• D. Joint pain.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hematuria is the most important assessment finding to report to the healthcare provider in a client with SLE during an exacerbation. Hematuria indicates kidney involvement, a serious complication of SLE that requires prompt medical attention. While low-grade fever, muscle atrophy, and joint pain are symptoms that can occur in SLE, hematuria signifies potential renal damage, which is a critical concern in SLE exacerbations.

3. What most influences the severity of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)?

• A. Poor cough and gag reflex
• B. The gestational age at birth
• C. Administering high concentrations of oxygen
• D. The sex of the infant

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The gestational age at birth most influences the severity of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). RDS is caused by a deficiency of surfactant and it occurs almost exclusively in preterm, low-birth weight infants. Therefore, the gestational age at birth is a key factor in determining the likelihood and severity of RDS. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the primary factor influencing the severity of RDS.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. What do these symptoms indicate?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
• C. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS)
• D. Insulin shock

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia are classic signs of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which occurs due to a combination of hyperglycemia and ketone production. Hypoglycemia (Choice A) is characterized by low blood sugar levels, leading to symptoms like confusion, shakiness, and sweating, which are different from the symptoms described in the scenario. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS) (Choice C) typically presents with severe hyperglycemia, dehydration, and altered mental status, rather than the triad of symptoms mentioned. Insulin shock (Choice D) refers to a severe hypoglycemic reaction due to excessive insulin, manifesting with confusion, sweating, and rapid heartbeat, not the symptoms seen in the client with diabetes mellitus described in this scenario.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with myasthenia gravis. Which symptom is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Diplopia (double vision)
• B. Difficulty swallowing
• C. Weakness in the legs
• D. Fatigue

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with myasthenia gravis, difficulty swallowing is the most crucial symptom to report to the healthcare provider. This is because it can lead to aspiration, a severe complication in these clients. Diplopia (double vision) and weakness in the legs are common symptoms of myasthenia gravis but are not as immediately dangerous as difficulty swallowing. Fatigue is also a common symptom in myasthenia gravis but does not pose the same risk of aspiration as difficulty swallowing.

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