Nursing Elites

1. What is the major criterion for diagnosing cognitive impairment in a child?

• A. An IQ of 75 or less
• B. Subaverage functioning
• C. An IQ of 70 or less
• D. Onset before 18

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct criterion for diagnosing cognitive impairment in a child is having an IQ of 70 or less. This range is typically used to define cognitive impairment in children. Choice A ('An IQ of 75 or less') is incorrect as the threshold is generally set at 70 or below. Choice B ('Subaverage functioning') is vague and does not specifically address the IQ criterion. Choice D ('Onset before 18') is unrelated to the primary criterion of IQ level used in diagnosing cognitive impairment in children.

2. The nurse determines that an adult client who is admitted to the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) following abdominal surgery has a tympanic temperature of 94.6°F (34.4°C), a pulse rate of 88 beats/minute, a respiratory rate of 14 breaths/minute, and a blood pressure of 94/68 mmHg. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Check the BP every five minutes for one hour.
• B. Raise the HOB 60 to 90 degrees.
• C. Ask the client to cough and deep breathe.
• D. Take the client’s temperature using another method.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Taking the temperature using another method is essential in this situation to verify if the low reading is accurate and requires further intervention. The tympanic temperature of 94.6°F may be inaccurate due to various factors such as improper technique or environmental conditions. Checking the blood pressure every five minutes for one hour (Choice A) is not the priority in this case as the low blood pressure reading alone does not necessitate such frequent monitoring. Raising the head of the bed 60 to 90 degrees (Choice B) is not directly related to addressing the low temperature and blood pressure. Asking the client to cough and deep breathe (Choice C) is a general intervention that may not directly address the specific concern of the low temperature reading.

3. A client with partial-thickness burns to the lower extremities is scheduled for whirlpool therapy to debride the burned area. Which intervention should the nurse implement before transporting the client to the physical therapy department?

• A. Apply a sterile dressing to the wound.
• B. Administer an analgesic.
• C. Encourage the client to drink fluids.
• D. Ensure the client's nutritional needs are met.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering an analgesic before whirlpool therapy is the priority intervention in this scenario. Whirlpool therapy for debridement can be painful for the client with partial-thickness burns. Administering an analgesic before the procedure helps manage pain during the debridement process, ensuring the client's comfort. Applying a sterile dressing (Choice A) may be necessary after the whirlpool therapy but is not the immediate pre-transport intervention. Encouraging the client to drink fluids (Choice C) and ensuring nutritional needs are met (Choice D) are important aspects of care but are not specifically related to preparing the client for whirlpool therapy.

4. Which nursing diagnosis should be selected for a client who is receiving thrombolytic infusions for treatment of an acute myocardial infarction?

• A. Risk for infection related to thrombolysis.
• B. Risk for fluid volume deficit related to thrombolysis.
• C. Risk for impaired skin integrity related to thrombolysis.
• D. Risk for injury related to effects of thrombolysis.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Thrombolytic therapy increases the risk of bleeding, not infection, fluid volume deficit, or impaired skin integrity. The most significant concern with thrombolytic therapy is the potential for bleeding complications, which can lead to various injuries. Therefore, 'Risk for injury related to effects of thrombolysis' is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis in this scenario. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not directly correlate with the primary risk associated with thrombolytic therapy.

5. Which other congenital defects are common in children with Down syndrome?

• A. Hypospadias
• B. Pyloric stenosis
• C. Heart defects
• D. Hip dysplasia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Heart defects. Many children with Down syndrome are born with congenital heart defects. These heart abnormalities are more prevalent in individuals with Down syndrome than in the general population. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while they may be congenital defects in children, they are not commonly associated with Down syndrome. Hypospadias is a urogenital condition, pyloric stenosis affects the stomach, and hip dysplasia involves the hip joint, but these are not typically seen as frequently as heart defects in children with Down syndrome.

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