Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with a blood pressure of 220/120 mm Hg. What is the priority nursing action?

• A. Administer antihypertensive medication as prescribed.
• B. Place the client in a supine position.
• C. Obtain a detailed health history.
• D. Monitor urine output.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering antihypertensive medication is the priority nursing action in this situation. The extremely high blood pressure of 220/120 mm Hg puts the client at risk of severe complications such as stroke, heart attack, or kidney damage. Lowering the blood pressure promptly is crucial to prevent these complications. Placing the client in a supine position or obtaining a detailed health history are not immediate actions needed to address the hypertensive crisis. Monitoring urine output, although important, is not the priority when the client's blood pressure is critically high.

2. Since children with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) take medication for long periods of time, side effects must be considered. How often should children be assessed for side effects of the drug therapy?

• A. Every 2 months
• B. Every 4 months
• C. Every 6 months
• D. Every 8 months

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Children with ADHD who are on long-term medication therapy should be assessed for side effects every 6 months. This timeframe allows healthcare providers to monitor the effects of the medication and make any necessary adjustments. Checking every 2 months (Choice A) may be too frequent and not practical for routine monitoring, while checking every 4 or 8 months (Choices B and D) may lead to missing potential side effects or delays in addressing them.

3. A client is admitted to the medical unit during an exacerbation of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). It is most important to report which assessment finding to the healthcare provider?

• A. Low-grade fever.
• B. Muscle atrophy.
• C. Hematuria.
• D. Joint pain.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hematuria is the most important assessment finding to report to the healthcare provider in a client with SLE during an exacerbation. Hematuria indicates kidney involvement, a serious complication of SLE that requires prompt medical attention. While low-grade fever, muscle atrophy, and joint pain are symptoms that can occur in SLE, hematuria signifies potential renal damage, which is a critical concern in SLE exacerbations.

4. Which signs/symptoms would be considered classical signs of meningeal irritation?

• A. Positive Kernig sign, diarrhea, and headache
• B. Negative Brudzinski sign, positive Kernig sign, and irritability
• C. Positive Brudzinski sign, positive Kernig sign, and photophobia
• D. Negative Kernig sign, vomiting, and fever

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Positive Brudzinski sign, positive Kernig sign, and photophobia are considered classical signs of meningeal irritation. The Kernig sign is positive when the leg is extended at the knee and then raised, resulting in pain and resistance. The Brudzinski sign is positive when flexing the neck causes flexion of the hips and knees due to meningeal irritation. Photophobia, or sensitivity to light, is a common symptom due to meningeal inflammation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not include the classic signs associated with meningeal irritation.

5. Which nursing diagnosis should be selected for a client who is receiving thrombolytic infusions for treatment of an acute myocardial infarction?

• A. Risk for infection related to thrombolysis.
• B. Risk for fluid volume deficit related to thrombolysis.
• C. Risk for impaired skin integrity related to thrombolysis.
• D. Risk for injury related to effects of thrombolysis.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Thrombolytic therapy increases the risk of bleeding, not infection, fluid volume deficit, or impaired skin integrity. The most significant concern with thrombolytic therapy is the potential for bleeding complications, which can lead to various injuries. Therefore, 'Risk for injury related to effects of thrombolysis' is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis in this scenario. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not directly correlate with the primary risk associated with thrombolytic therapy.

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