Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a client who has herpes zoster. Which question will allow the nurse to gather further information about this condition?

• A. Has everyone at home already had varicella?
• B. Have the antifungal creams been effective?
• C. Do your family members share combs and brushes?
• D. Do you have any dry patches on your feet and hands?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Has everyone at home already had varicella?' Herpes zoster (shingles) is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, the same virus that causes chickenpox. By knowing if others at home had varicella (chickenpox), the nurse can assess the risk of transmission and provide appropriate guidance. Choice B is incorrect because antifungal creams are not effective for herpes zoster, which is a viral infection. Choice C is irrelevant to herpes zoster as it pertains to sharing personal items that may transmit head lice or certain skin infections. Choice D is also unrelated as it focuses on dry patches, not typical manifestations of herpes zoster which presents as a painful rash.

2. While performing a skin assessment on an older adult, the nurse notices a number of irregular round brownish-colored lesions on the client’s hands, arms, and face. On palpation, they are flat and slightly rough to the touch. Based on this assessment finding, which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Apply a topical antibiotic ointment.
• B. Monitor the lesions for changes.
• C. Advise the client to use sunscreen.
• D. Refer the client for a skin lesion biopsy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Referral for a skin biopsy is necessary to rule out potential malignancy of irregular skin lesions. Applying a topical antibiotic ointment (Choice A) is not indicated for irregular pigmented lesions. Monitoring the lesions for changes (Choice B) may delay appropriate intervention if malignancy is present. Advising the client to use sunscreen (Choice C) is important for sun protection but is not the priority when irregular lesions are present.

3. An older male client tells the nurse that he is losing sleep because he has to get up several times at night to go to the bathroom, that he has trouble starting his urinary stream, and that he does not feel like his bladder is ever completely empty. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Collect a urine specimen for culture analysis
• B. Review the client's fluid intake prior to bedtime
• C. Palpate the bladder above the symphysis pubis
• D. Obtain a fingerstick glucose level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Palpating the bladder above the symphysis pubis is the most appropriate intervention in this scenario. It helps assess for urinary retention, which is a common issue in older males presenting with symptoms like difficulty starting urinary stream and feeling of incomplete bladder emptying. Collecting a urine specimen for culture analysis (Choice A) may be necessary in other situations like suspected urinary tract infection. Reviewing the client's fluid intake (Choice B) is important but does not directly address the current issue of urinary retention. Obtaining a fingerstick glucose level (Choice D) is not relevant to the client's urinary symptoms.

4. A client with chronic heart failure is experiencing dyspnea and has an oxygen saturation of 88%. Which position is most appropriate to improve oxygenation?

• A. Supine with legs elevated
• B. High Fowler's position
• C. Prone with pillows under the chest
• D. Side-lying with head flat

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: High Fowler's position. High Fowler's position is the most appropriate for a client with chronic heart failure experiencing dyspnea and low oxygen saturation. This position helps improve lung expansion and oxygenation by maximizing chest expansion and allowing better ventilation. Choice A, supine with legs elevated, may worsen dyspnea by reducing lung expansion. Choice C, prone with pillows under the chest, is not suitable for a client experiencing dyspnea as it may further compromise breathing. Choice D, side-lying with head flat, does not facilitate optimal lung expansion and is not the best choice for improving oxygenation in this scenario.

5. When is the best time to administer pancreatic enzyme replacement?

• A. Before meals and snacks
• B. Before bedtime
• C. Early in the morning
• D. After meals and snacks

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer pancreatic enzyme replacement before meals and snacks. This timing is crucial as it allows the enzymes to assist in the digestion of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins that are consumed during the meals. Administering the replacement after meals and snacks would not be effective as the enzymes need to be present in the digestive system when food is consumed. Options B and C are incorrect as they do not align with the optimal timing for pancreatic enzyme replacement administration.

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