HESI LPN
Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI
1. The nurse is assessing a client who has herpes zoster. Which question will allow the nurse to gather further information about this condition?
- A. Has everyone at home already had varicella?
- B. Have the antifungal creams been effective?
- C. Do your family members share combs and brushes?
- D. Do you have any dry patches on your feet and hands?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Has everyone at home already had varicella?' Herpes zoster (shingles) is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, the same virus that causes chickenpox. By knowing if others at home had varicella (chickenpox), the nurse can assess the risk of transmission and provide appropriate guidance. Choice B is incorrect because antifungal creams are not effective for herpes zoster, which is a viral infection. Choice C is irrelevant to herpes zoster as it pertains to sharing personal items that may transmit head lice or certain skin infections. Choice D is also unrelated as it focuses on dry patches, not typical manifestations of herpes zoster which presents as a painful rash.
2. A client with a new colostomy is concerned about odor. What is the best advice the nurse can provide?
- A. Avoid high-fiber foods
- B. Use an odor-proof pouch
- C. Decrease fluid intake
- D. Increase dairy products in the diet
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best advice the nurse can provide to a client concerned about odor from a new colostomy is to use an odor-proof pouch. This option helps control odors effectively by containing and masking any unpleasant smells. Avoiding high-fiber foods (Choice A) is not the best advice as fiber is essential for bowel health, and decreasing fluid intake (Choice C) can lead to dehydration and other complications. Increasing dairy products in the diet (Choice D) is not directly related to controlling odors from a colostomy.
3. What is the most critical initial intervention for a client who is actively seizing?
- A. Restrain the client to prevent injury
- B. Insert an oral airway
- C. Turn the client to the side
- D. Apply soft restraints to the wrists
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most critical initial intervention for a client who is actively seizing is to turn the client to the side. This action helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration during a seizure. Restrain the client to prevent injury (Choice A) is incorrect because restraining a client during a seizure can lead to injury. Inserting an oral airway (Choice B) is not recommended as it can cause injury and is not necessary during an active seizure. Applying soft restraints to the wrists (Choice D) is also not recommended as it can lead to harm and does not address the immediate airway management needed during a seizure.
4. An adult client who received partial-thickness and full-thickness burns over 40% of the body in a house fire is admitted to the inpatient burn unit.
- A. Normal Saline
- B. Lactated Ringer’s
- C. 5% Dextrose in water
- D. 0.45% Sodium Chloride
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In burn patients, Lactated Ringer's solution is preferred over other options as it helps in restoring fluid and electrolyte balance effectively. Lactated Ringer's contains electrolytes (sodium, potassium, calcium) that closely mimic the body's natural composition, making it a suitable choice for fluid resuscitation in burn injuries. Normal Saline (Choice A) lacks electrolytes like potassium and calcium, which are essential in burn management. 5% Dextrose in water (Choice C) is a hypotonic solution and is not the ideal choice for fluid resuscitation in burn patients. 0.45% Sodium Chloride (Choice D) is a hypotonic solution mainly used for conditions requiring free water replacement rather than volume expansion needed in burn injuries.
5. A client with rheumatoid arthritis has elevated serum rheumatoid factor. Which interpretation of this finding should the nurse make?
- A. Evidence of spread of the disease to the kidney.
- B. Confirmation of the autoimmune disease process.
- C. Representative of a decline in the client's condition.
- D. Indication of the onset of joint degeneration.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct interpretation of elevated serum rheumatoid factor in a client with rheumatoid arthritis is confirmation of the autoimmune disease process. Rheumatoid factor is a marker for autoimmune activity, thus confirming the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Choice A is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor does not specifically indicate spread of the disease to the kidney. Choice C is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor does not always represent a decline in the client's condition. Choice D is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor is not an indication of the onset of joint degeneration, but rather points towards autoimmune activity.
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