Nursing Elites

1. During a paracentesis, two liters of fluid are removed from the abdomen of a client with ascites. A drainage bag is placed, and 50 ml of straw-colored fluid drains within the first hour. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Palpate for abdominal distention
• B. Send fluid to the lab for analysis
• C. Continue to monitor the fluid output
• D. Clamp the drainage tube for 5 minutes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Continuing to monitor the fluid output is the appropriate action in this situation. Monitoring the fluid output helps the nurse assess the client's ongoing response to the procedure and detect any sudden changes, such as increased or decreased drainage rate, which could indicate complications. Palpating for abdominal distention, sending fluid to the lab for analysis, or clamping the drainage tube are not necessary actions at this point, as the priority is to monitor the client's condition post-procedure.

2. Which nursing intervention promotes achievement of the goal 'optimal mobility' for a client who had a total hip replacement 8 hours ago?

• A. Encourage the client to use an abductor pillow when ambulating.
• B. Teach the client to perform leg exercises in bed.
• C. Assist the client to sit at the edge of the bed.
• D. Assist the client to turn while an abductor pillow is between the legs.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assisting the client to turn while an abductor pillow is between the legs is the correct intervention to promote optimal mobility for a client who had a total hip replacement 8 hours ago. Using an abductor pillow helps maintain hip alignment and prevents dislocation, which are crucial considerations in the early postoperative period. Encouraging the client to use an abductor pillow when turning is more beneficial compared to the other options: teaching leg exercises in bed, encouraging the use of a walker when ambulating, or assisting the client to sit at the edge of the bed, as these interventions may not directly address the specific needs of a client after a total hip replacement.

3. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Report any signs of a sore throat or fever immediately
• B. Take the medication with antacids to reduce stomach upset
• C. Discontinue the medication if you feel drowsy
• D. Increase the dosage if you experience an aura

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Report any signs of a sore throat or fever immediately.' Phenytoin can cause blood dyscrasias, which can manifest as a sore throat or fever. These symptoms could indicate a serious side effect that requires immediate medical attention. Choice B is incorrect because phenytoin should not be taken with antacids as they can decrease its absorption. Choice C is incorrect because discontinuing phenytoin abruptly can lead to rebound seizures; drowsiness is a common side effect that may improve with time. Choice D is incorrect because adjusting the dosage of phenytoin should only be done under healthcare provider supervision, not based on experiencing an aura.

4. The nurse is reviewing blood pressure readings for a group of clients on a medical unit. Which client is at the highest risk for complications related to hypertension?

• A. Post-menopausal Caucasian female who overeats and is 20% above her ideal body weight.
• B. Young adult Hispanic female who has hemoglobin at 11 g/dl (110 g/L) and drinks beer daily.
• C. Older adult who consumes a diet of smoked, cured, and pickled foods.
• D. Middle-aged African-American male who has a serum creatinine level of 2.9 mg/dL (256.4 micromol/L).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An elevated serum creatinine level indicates kidney damage, which significantly increases the risk of complications from hypertension. High blood pressure can damage the kidneys over time, leading to impaired kidney function. Choices A, B, and C do not directly correlate with increased risk of complications related to hypertension. Choice A focuses on obesity and overeating, Choice B on anemia and alcohol consumption, and Choice C on a diet high in sodium and nitrates, none of which are as directly related to hypertension complications as kidney damage.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. What do these symptoms indicate?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
• C. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS)
• D. Insulin shock

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia are classic signs of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which occurs due to a combination of hyperglycemia and ketone production. Hypoglycemia (Choice A) is characterized by low blood sugar levels, leading to symptoms like confusion, shakiness, and sweating, which are different from the symptoms described in the scenario. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS) (Choice C) typically presents with severe hyperglycemia, dehydration, and altered mental status, rather than the triad of symptoms mentioned. Insulin shock (Choice D) refers to a severe hypoglycemic reaction due to excessive insulin, manifesting with confusion, sweating, and rapid heartbeat, not the symptoms seen in the client with diabetes mellitus described in this scenario.

Similar Questions