a client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed methimazole which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for
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1. A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed methimazole. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Agranulocytosis. Methimazole, used to treat hyperthyroidism, can lead to agranulocytosis, a severe decrease in white blood cells. This condition increases the risk of infections and requires immediate medical attention. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is not a common adverse effect of methimazole. Bradycardia (choice C) is unlikely as methimazole tends to have minimal effects on heart rate. Hypercalcemia (choice D) is not associated with methimazole use.

2. A male client tells the nurse that he is experiencing burning on urination, and assessment reveals that he had sexual intercourse four days ago with a woman he casually met. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to obtain a specimen of urethral drainage for culture. This procedure can help diagnose the cause of burning on urination, which could be indicative of a sexually transmitted infection. Option A, observing for a chancroid-like lesion, may not be the most immediate or relevant action in this case. Option C, assessing for perineal itching, erythema, and excoriation, is important but obtaining a culture specimen would provide more specific diagnostic information. Option D, identifying all sexual partners, is relevant for contact tracing but obtaining a culture specimen is the priority to determine the current infection status.

3. The healthcare provider writes several prescriptions for a client diagnosed with hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP) that include a combination of broad-spectrum antibiotics. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Collecting blood specimens for culture prior to starting antibiotic therapy is the priority intervention in a client diagnosed with hospital-acquired pneumonia. This step is crucial to identify the causative organism responsible for the infection and ensure that the antibiotics prescribed are appropriate for effective treatment. Administering antibiotics before collecting cultures may interfere with the accuracy of culture results, potentially leading to inappropriate treatment. While administering the first dose of antibiotics is important, obtaining a chest X-ray and administering oxygen therapy are secondary interventions compared to identifying the causative organism through blood cultures.

4. When is the best time to administer pancreatic enzyme replacement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer pancreatic enzyme replacement before meals and snacks. This timing is crucial as it allows the enzymes to assist in the digestion of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins that are consumed during the meals. Administering the replacement after meals and snacks would not be effective as the enzymes need to be present in the digestive system when food is consumed. Options B and C are incorrect as they do not align with the optimal timing for pancreatic enzyme replacement administration.

5. A client with a spinal cord injury at the level of T1 is at risk for autonomic dysreflexia. Which symptom is indicative of this condition?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a condition commonly seen in clients with spinal cord injuries at T6 or above. It is characterized by a sudden onset of severe hypertension, pounding headache, profuse sweating, nasal congestion, and flushing of the skin above the level of injury. The severe headache is a key symptom resulting from uncontrolled hypertension. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as autonomic dysreflexia typically presents with hypertension, not hypotension, tachycardia, or flushed skin below the level of injury.

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