Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is teaching a client about coronary artery disease (CAD) preventive health. Which behavior stated by the client indicates a need for additional information and teaching?

• A. Increasing physical activity.
• B. Eating a low-fat diet.
• C. Decreasing the number of cigarettes smoked per day.
• D. Monitoring blood pressure regularly.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Decreasing the number of cigarettes smoked per day is not sufficient for CAD prevention. Smoking cessation is crucial in reducing the risk of CAD. While increasing physical activity, eating a low-fat diet, and monitoring blood pressure regularly are all positive behaviors for CAD prevention, quitting smoking should be emphasized due to its significant impact on cardiovascular health.

2. The mother of a child with acute laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB) asks why her child must be kept NPO. Which response would be the most correct?

• A. The epinephrine given causes nausea and vomiting.
• B. The child is being hydrated with IV fluids.
• C. The child is not hungry.
• D. The child's rapid respirations pose a risk for aspiration.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because rapid respirations predispose to aspiration in a child with acute laryngotracheobronchitis. Choice A is incorrect because epinephrine does not directly relate to the need for NPO status. Choice B is incorrect as hydration with IV fluids is not the primary reason for keeping the child NPO. Choice C is incorrect as the child being hungry is not the main concern when keeping a child NPO in this situation.

3. An older client is receiving an IV of 5% dextrose in 0.45% normal saline at 75 mL/hour. Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the client is developing a complication from this therapy?

• A. Capillary refill takes > 3 seconds.
• B. Episodes of vertigo and loss of balance.
• C. Average daily output of 1200 ml.
• D. Pulse rate of 110 beats/minute and dyspnea upon exertion.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Tachycardia and dyspnea are signs of fluid overload, which is a potential complication of IV fluid therapy. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to fluid overload and are not typical signs of complications associated with the IV fluid therapy being administered.

4. What is the priority patient problem for the parents of a newborn born with cleft lip and palate?

• A. Parental role conflict
• B. Risk for delayed growth and development
• C. Risk for impaired attachment
• D. Anticipatory grieving

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Risk for impaired attachment. Parents of a newborn with cleft lip and palate may face challenges in bonding with their child due to the physical appearance, impacting attachment. Promoting bonding between parents and the infant is crucial in this situation. Choice A (Parental role conflict) is incorrect as it focuses on conflicting roles rather than the attachment issue. Choice B (Risk for delayed growth and development) is not the priority issue in this scenario as the immediate concern is establishing a healthy attachment. Choice D (Anticipatory grieving) is not the priority patient problem as it pertains more to the emotional response to an anticipated loss, which is not the primary concern at this stage.

5. When is the best time to administer pancreatic enzyme replacement?

• A. Before meals and snacks
• B. Before bedtime
• C. Early in the morning
• D. After meals and snacks

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer pancreatic enzyme replacement before meals and snacks. This timing is crucial as it allows the enzymes to assist in the digestion of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins that are consumed during the meals. Administering the replacement after meals and snacks would not be effective as the enzymes need to be present in the digestive system when food is consumed. Options B and C are incorrect as they do not align with the optimal timing for pancreatic enzyme replacement administration.

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