a client who has a history of unstable angina is admitted to the emergency department with chest pain
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Medical Surgical HESI 2023

1. A client who has a history of unstable angina is admitted to the emergency department with chest pain.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Chest pain unrelieved after taking 3 sequential nitroglycerin tablets indicates a possible myocardial infarction and requires immediate medical attention.

2. The nurse is teaching a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) about dietary modifications. Which food should the client avoid?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Coffee. Coffee should be avoided by clients with GERD as it can relax the lower esophageal sphincter, leading to an increase in GERD symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are not directly associated with worsening GERD symptoms and can be included in moderation in the diet of a client with GERD.

3. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Report any signs of a sore throat or fever immediately.' Phenytoin can cause blood dyscrasias, which can manifest as a sore throat or fever. These symptoms could indicate a serious side effect that requires immediate medical attention. Choice B is incorrect because phenytoin should not be taken with antacids as they can decrease its absorption. Choice C is incorrect because discontinuing phenytoin abruptly can lead to rebound seizures; drowsiness is a common side effect that may improve with time. Choice D is incorrect because adjusting the dosage of phenytoin should only be done under healthcare provider supervision, not based on experiencing an aura.

4. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports to the nurse that a client with a postoperative wound infection has a temperature of 103.8°F, blood pressure 90/70, pulse 124 beats/min, and respirations of 28 breaths/min. When the nurse assesses the client's findings, they include a mottled skin appearance and confusion. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to initiate an infusion of intravenous (IV) fluids. In this scenario, the client is showing signs of sepsis, indicated by a high temperature, low blood pressure, rapid heart rate, and increased respiratory rate. Mottled skin appearance and confusion are also signs of poor perfusion. Initiating IV fluids is crucial in treating sepsis to maintain blood pressure and perfusion. Obtaining a wound specimen for culture (Choice A) can be important but is not the priority at this moment. Transferring the client to the ICU (Choice C) can be considered after stabilizing the client. Assessing the client's core temperature (Choice D) is not the immediate priority compared to addressing the signs of sepsis and poor perfusion.

5. The healthcare provider prescribes Cytovene 375 mg every 12 hours to infuse over 90 minutes. The pharmacy delivers Cytovene 375 mg in a 150 mL IV bag. How many ml/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To infuse 150 mL over 90 minutes, the pump should be set to 100 ml/hour (150 mL / 1.5 hours). This rate ensures that the medication is delivered at the proper rate as prescribed. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the volume of the IV bag and the infusion duration provided in the question.

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