Nursing Elites

1. A client who has a history of unstable angina is admitted to the emergency department with chest pain.

• A. Chest pain relieved by rest.
• B. Chest pain unrelieved after taking 3 sequential nitroglycerin tablets.
• C. Chest pain occurring only with exertion.
• D. Chest pain lasting less than 5 minutes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Chest pain unrelieved after taking 3 sequential nitroglycerin tablets indicates a possible myocardial infarction and requires immediate medical attention.

2. The family of a newly admitted child with cystic fibrosis is educated by the nurse that the treatment will be centered on what therapy?

• A. Chest physiotherapy
• B. Mucus-drying agents
• C. Prevention of diarrhea
• D. Insulin therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chest physiotherapy. In cystic fibrosis, chest physiotherapy and aerosol medications are fundamental components of treatment to help clear mucus from the lungs, reduce the risk of infections, and improve breathing. Mucus-drying agents (Choice B) are not typically used in the treatment of cystic fibrosis. Prevention of diarrhea (Choice C) is not a primary focus in the treatment of cystic fibrosis. Insulin therapy (Choice D) is not relevant to cystic fibrosis, as it is a treatment for diabetes.

3. In planning nursing care for a bedfast client, which factor is most likely to contribute to the development of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in an immobile client?

• A. Atherosclerotic plaque formation.
• B. Stasis of blood flow.
• C. Endothelial damage.
• D. Atherosclerotic vessel changes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stasis of blood flow. Stasis of blood flow in immobile clients increases the risk of DVT, as lack of movement can cause blood to pool and clot. Atherosclerotic plaque formation (choice A) and atherosclerotic vessel changes (choice D) are more related to arterial diseases rather than DVT. Endothelial damage (choice C) can contribute to the development of DVT, but in an immobile client, stasis of blood flow is the most significant factor.

4. What assessment findings should lead the nurse to suspect Down syndrome in a newborn?

• A. Hypertonia and dark skin
• B. Low-set ears and a simian crease
• C. Inner epicanthal folds and a high, domed forehead
• D. Long, thin fingers and excessive hair

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Low-set ears and a simian crease.' These are key physical characteristics commonly seen in newborns with Down syndrome. Low-set ears, along with a simian crease (a single palmar crease), are indicative of Down syndrome. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hypertonia, dark skin, inner epicanthal folds, a high, domed forehead, long, thin fingers, and excessive hair are not specific features associated with Down syndrome in newborns. Therefore, the presence of low-set ears and a simian crease should raise suspicion for Down syndrome and prompt further evaluation.

5. A client with chronic heart failure is experiencing dyspnea and has an oxygen saturation of 88%. Which position is most appropriate to improve oxygenation?

• A. Supine with legs elevated
• B. High Fowler's position
• C. Prone with pillows under the chest
• D. Side-lying with head flat

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: High Fowler's position. High Fowler's position is the most appropriate for a client with chronic heart failure experiencing dyspnea and low oxygen saturation. This position helps improve lung expansion and oxygenation by maximizing chest expansion and allowing better ventilation. Choice A, supine with legs elevated, may worsen dyspnea by reducing lung expansion. Choice C, prone with pillows under the chest, is not suitable for a client experiencing dyspnea as it may further compromise breathing. Choice D, side-lying with head flat, does not facilitate optimal lung expansion and is not the best choice for improving oxygenation in this scenario.

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