HESI LPN
Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI Quizlet
1. A client with liver cirrhosis is at risk for developing hepatic encephalopathy. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Kussmaul respirations
- B. Asterixis (flapping tremor)
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Asterixis, also known as a flapping tremor, is a common sign of hepatic encephalopathy, indicating neurological dysfunction due to liver failure. Kussmaul respirations (option A) are associated with metabolic acidosis, which is not a typical manifestation of hepatic encephalopathy. Bradycardia (option C) and hypertension (option D) are not typically associated with hepatic encephalopathy; in fact, hepatic encephalopathy is more commonly associated with alterations in mental status, neuromuscular abnormalities, and changes in behavior.
2. Ten hours following thrombolysis for an ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), a client is receiving a lidocaine infusion for isolated runs of ventricular tachycardia. Which finding should the nurse document in the EMR as a therapeutic response to the lidocaine infusion?
- A. Stabilization of BP ranges
- B. Cessation of chest pain
- C. Reduced heart rate
- D. Decreased frequency of episodes of VT
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Decreased frequency of ventricular tachycardia (VT) episodes indicates that the lidocaine infusion is effectively managing the ventricular tachycardia. Stabilization of BP ranges (choice A) may not directly correlate with the therapeutic response to lidocaine for VT. Cessation of chest pain (choice B) may indicate pain relief but does not specifically address the effectiveness of lidocaine for VT. Reduced heart rate (choice C) is not a direct indicator of the response to lidocaine for managing VT.
3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a chest tube. Which finding indicates that the chest tube is functioning properly?
- A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
- B. Tidaling in the water seal chamber
- C. Absence of drainage in the collection chamber
- D. Fluid level in the suction control chamber is below the prescribed level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Tidaling in the water seal chamber indicates proper chest tube function. Tidaling refers to the rise and fall of fluid in the water seal with inhalation and exhalation, demonstrating the patency of the system. Continuous bubbling (Choice A) in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak. Absence of drainage in the collection chamber (Choice C) is not a desired finding as it suggests no drainage is occurring. A fluid level below the prescribed level in the suction control chamber (Choice D) may indicate inadequate suction.
4. Which of the following is a priority assessment for a client receiving intravenous vancomycin?
- A. Respiratory rate
- B. Blood pressure
- C. Urine output
- D. Hearing acuity
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hearing acuity. Vancomycin is known to cause ototoxicity, which can result in hearing loss. Monitoring the client's hearing acuity is crucial to detect any early signs of ototoxicity. Assessing respiratory rate, blood pressure, and urine output are important assessments in general patient care but are not the priority when specifically monitoring for vancomycin-induced ototoxicity.
5. Following surgical repair of a cleft palate, what should be used to prevent injury to the suture line?
- A. Straw
- B. Spoon
- C. Syringe
- D. Cup
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Following surgical repair of a cleft palate, a cup should be used to prevent injury to the suture line. Utensils such as straws, spoons, droppers, and syringes should be avoided as they can cause trauma to the surgical site. Using a cup reduces the risk of disrupting the sutures and promotes proper healing.
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