a client with liver cirrhosis is at risk for developing hepatic encephalopathy which clinical manifestation should the nurse monitor for
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Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI Quizlet

1. A client with liver cirrhosis is at risk for developing hepatic encephalopathy. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Asterixis, also known as a flapping tremor, is a common sign of hepatic encephalopathy, indicating neurological dysfunction due to liver failure. Kussmaul respirations (option A) are associated with metabolic acidosis, which is not a typical manifestation of hepatic encephalopathy. Bradycardia (option C) and hypertension (option D) are not typically associated with hepatic encephalopathy; in fact, hepatic encephalopathy is more commonly associated with alterations in mental status, neuromuscular abnormalities, and changes in behavior.

2. While walking to the mailbox, an older adult male experiences sudden chest tightness and drives himself to the emergency department. When the client gets up to the desk of the triage nurse, he says his heart is pounding out of his chest as he clutches his chest and falls to the floor. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Palpating the client's artery is the priority intervention in this scenario because it helps determine if there is a pulse, which is crucial information in emergency situations like this. If the client is pulseless, immediate initiation of CPR is necessary. Applying cardiac monitor leads or obtaining troponin serum levels can wait until the presence of a pulse is confirmed. Cardiac defibrillation is not indicated without first assessing the client's pulse and cardiac rhythm.

3. Based on this strip, what is the correct interpretation of this rhythm?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct interpretation of the rhythm strip is atrial fibrillation. This arrhythmia is characterized by an irregular heartbeat and the absence of distinct P waves. Choice B, premature atrial fibrillation, is incorrect as there is no indication of premature beats in the strip. Choice C, AV block, is also incorrect as there is no evidence of conduction delays between the atria and ventricles. Choice D, ventricular tachycardia, is not supported by the absence of wide QRS complexes typically seen in this arrhythmia.

4. A client who is receiving general anesthesia begins to demonstrate symptoms of malignant hyperthermia. Which intervention should the perioperative nurse prepare to implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prepare for cessation of the anesthesia and the surgical procedure. Malignant hyperthermia is a severe reaction to certain medications used during general anesthesia. The immediate intervention to manage malignant hyperthermia is to stop the triggering agents, which include anesthesia and surgery. Ensuring patency of an indwelling catheter and measuring intake and output, obtaining specimens of ABGs and serum electrolytes, and initiating cooling measures are important interventions but should follow the immediate action of stopping the anesthesia and surgery to address the life-threatening condition of malignant hyperthermia.

5. A client with urolithiasis is preparing for discharge after lithotripsy. Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's postoperative discharge instructions?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After lithotripsy, monitoring the urinary stream for a decrease in output is essential to identify any potential complications such as urinary retention or obstruction. Reporting pink-tinged hematuria is important, but monitoring the urinary stream for a decrease in output takes precedence as it directly assesses renal function and potential complications. Using an incentive spirometer is not directly related to post-lithotripsy care. Restricting physical activities may be necessary initially but is not the priority compared to monitoring urinary output.

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