Nursing Elites

1. A client with partial-thickness burns to the lower extremities is scheduled for whirlpool therapy to debride the burned area. Which intervention should the nurse implement before transporting the client to the physical therapy department?

• A. Apply a sterile dressing to the wound.
• B. Administer an analgesic.
• C. Encourage the client to drink fluids.
• D. Ensure the client's nutritional needs are met.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering an analgesic before whirlpool therapy is the priority intervention in this scenario. Whirlpool therapy for debridement can be painful for the client with partial-thickness burns. Administering an analgesic before the procedure helps manage pain during the debridement process, ensuring the client's comfort. Applying a sterile dressing (Choice A) may be necessary after the whirlpool therapy but is not the immediate pre-transport intervention. Encouraging the client to drink fluids (Choice C) and ensuring nutritional needs are met (Choice D) are important aspects of care but are not specifically related to preparing the client for whirlpool therapy.

2. A client with urolithiasis is preparing for discharge after lithotripsy. Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's postoperative discharge instructions?

• A. Report when hematuria becomes pink-tinged
• B. Use incentive spirometer
• C. Restrict physical activities
• D. Monitor urinary stream for a decrease in output

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After lithotripsy, monitoring the urinary stream for a decrease in output is essential to identify any potential complications such as urinary retention or obstruction. Reporting pink-tinged hematuria is important, but monitoring the urinary stream for a decrease in output takes precedence as it directly assesses renal function and potential complications. Using an incentive spirometer is not directly related to post-lithotripsy care. Restricting physical activities may be necessary initially but is not the priority compared to monitoring urinary output.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving epoetin alfa. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the treatment?

• A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• B. Serum creatinine
• C. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
• D. Serum potassium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hemoglobin and hematocrit. Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production, so monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels is essential to assess its effectiveness. These values reflect the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and can indicate if the treatment is improving anemia related to chronic kidney disease. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine are indicators of kidney function, while serum potassium levels are monitored due to electrolyte imbalances commonly seen in kidney disease, but they do not directly reflect the effectiveness of epoetin alfa.

4. The nurse uses a diagram to show that the tetralogy of Fallot involves a combination of four congenital defects. What are the defects?

• A. Aortic stenosis, atrial septal defect, overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy
• B. Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy
• C. Aortic stenosis, atrial septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy
• D. Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, aortic hypertrophy, left ventricular hypertrophy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy. Tetralogy of Fallot involves these four congenital defects. Choice A is incorrect because it includes aortic stenosis instead of pulmonary stenosis, atrial septal defect instead of ventricular septal defect, and left ventricular hypertrophy instead of right ventricular hypertrophy. Choice C is incorrect as it includes aortic stenosis and atrial septal defect instead of pulmonary stenosis and ventricular septal defect. Choice D is incorrect because it includes aortic hypertrophy instead of overriding aorta.

5. A new mother asks the clinic nurse if she must continue giving her baby nystatin for thrush since the white lesions on his tongue have disappeared. What response by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. No. When the lesions have disappeared, you may stop the nystatin.
• B. Yes. You should continue it for the full 7 days.
• C. No. Thrush is a self-limiting disorder, and nystatin is given for complete treatment.
• D. Yes. The medication should be refilled for a second week of therapy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because nystatin should be given for the full 7 days even if the lesions are no longer present. Continuing the treatment for the prescribed duration ensures complete eradication of the fungal infection. Choice A is incorrect as stopping the medication prematurely may lead to the reoccurrence of thrush. Choice C is inaccurate as nystatin is not just for comfort but for effective treatment. Choice D is incorrect as refilling the medication for a second week without medical advice may lead to unnecessary prolonged use and potential side effects.

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