a unlicensed assistive personnel uap reports to the nurse that a client with a postoperative wound infection has a temperature of 1038f blood pressure
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Medical Surgical HESI 2023

1. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports to the nurse that a client with a postoperative wound infection has a temperature of 103.8°F, blood pressure 90/70, pulse 124 beats/min, and respirations of 28 breaths/min. When the nurse assesses the client's findings, they include a mottled skin appearance and confusion. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to initiate an infusion of intravenous (IV) fluids. In this scenario, the client is showing signs of sepsis, indicated by a high temperature, low blood pressure, rapid heart rate, and increased respiratory rate. Mottled skin appearance and confusion are also signs of poor perfusion. Initiating IV fluids is crucial in treating sepsis to maintain blood pressure and perfusion. Obtaining a wound specimen for culture (Choice A) can be important but is not the priority at this moment. Transferring the client to the ICU (Choice C) can be considered after stabilizing the client. Assessing the client's core temperature (Choice D) is not the immediate priority compared to addressing the signs of sepsis and poor perfusion.

2. A client is receiving a secondary infusion of erythromycin 1 gram in 100 mL dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to be infused in 45 minutes. How many mL/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To infuse 100 mL in 45 minutes, the infusion rate should be set to 133 mL/hour (100 mL / 0.75 hours). This calculation is obtained by dividing the total volume to be infused by the total time for infusion (100 mL / 0.75 hours = 133 mL/hour). Therefore, choice C is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately calculate the infusion rate required to deliver the medication within the specified time frame.

3. A male client with heart failure calls the clinic and reports that he cannot put his shoes on because they are too tight. Which additional information should the nurse obtain?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Has his weight changed in the last several days?' Sudden weight gain can indicate fluid retention, which is a common symptom of worsening heart failure. The inability to put on tight shoes can be due to fluid retention leading to swelling in the feet and ankles. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address the potential fluid retention issue and are less relevant in this scenario.

4. A client who has a history of unstable angina is admitted to the emergency department with chest pain.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Chest pain unrelieved after taking 3 sequential nitroglycerin tablets indicates a possible myocardial infarction and requires immediate medical attention.

5. What information should the nurse include in the teaching plan of a client diagnosed with GERD?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Minimize symptoms by wearing loose, comfortable clothing.' Wearing loose, comfortable clothing can help reduce pressure on the abdomen, which can alleviate GERD symptoms. Option A is incorrect as sleeping without using pillows is not a recommended practice for managing GERD. Option B is incorrect because it suggests adjusting food intake to five small meals throughout the day instead of three full meals with no snacks, which may not be suitable for everyone with GERD. Option D is incorrect as avoiding participation in any aerobic exercise program is not a standard recommendation for managing GERD; in fact, engaging in low-impact exercises like walking or swimming can be beneficial.

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