Nursing Elites

1. A client who took a camping vacation two weeks ago in a country with a tropical climate comes to the clinic describing vague symptoms and diarrhea for the past week. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the HCP?

• A. Weakness and fatigue
• B. Intestinal cramping
• C. Weight loss
• D. Jaundiced sclera

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most important finding to report to the healthcare provider is a jaundiced sclera. Jaundice suggests liver involvement, which can be a sign of a serious underlying condition. Weakness and fatigue, intestinal cramping, and weight loss are important symptoms, but jaundice indicates a more urgent issue that needs immediate attention.

2. The nurse determines that an adult client who is admitted to the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) following abdominal surgery has a tympanic temperature of 94.6°F (34.4°C), a pulse rate of 88 beats/minute, a respiratory rate of 14 breaths/minute, and a blood pressure of 94/68 mmHg. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Check the BP every five minutes for one hour.
• B. Raise the HOB 60 to 90 degrees.
• C. Ask the client to cough and deep breathe.
• D. Take the client’s temperature using another method.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Taking the temperature using another method is essential in this situation to verify if the low reading is accurate and requires further intervention. The tympanic temperature of 94.6°F may be inaccurate due to various factors such as improper technique or environmental conditions. Checking the blood pressure every five minutes for one hour (Choice A) is not the priority in this case as the low blood pressure reading alone does not necessitate such frequent monitoring. Raising the head of the bed 60 to 90 degrees (Choice B) is not directly related to addressing the low temperature and blood pressure. Asking the client to cough and deep breathe (Choice C) is a general intervention that may not directly address the specific concern of the low temperature reading.

3. The health care provider is treating a child with meningitis with a course of antibiotic therapy. When should the nurse expect the child to be out of isolation?

• A. When the course of antibiotics is complete
• B. When a negative CNS culture is obtained
• C. When the antibiotics have been initiated for 24 hours
• D. When the child has no symptoms of the disease

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a child with bacterial meningitis should be isolated for at least 24 hours until antibiotic therapy has been initiated. This period allows the antibiotics to start working against the infection, reducing the risk of spreading it to others. Choice A is incorrect because isolation is not solely based on completing the course of antibiotics; the initiation is crucial. Choice B is incorrect as waiting for a negative CNS culture may take longer and delay necessary precautions. Choice D is incorrect as symptom resolution does not guarantee the eradication of the infection and may still pose a risk of transmission.

4. In planning nursing care for a bedfast client, which factor is most likely to contribute to the development of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in an immobile client?

• A. Atherosclerotic plaque formation.
• B. Stasis of blood flow.
• C. Endothelial damage.
• D. Atherosclerotic vessel changes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stasis of blood flow. Stasis of blood flow in immobile clients increases the risk of DVT, as lack of movement can cause blood to pool and clot. Atherosclerotic plaque formation (choice A) and atherosclerotic vessel changes (choice D) are more related to arterial diseases rather than DVT. Endothelial damage (choice C) can contribute to the development of DVT, but in an immobile client, stasis of blood flow is the most significant factor.

5. A male client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) and Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia has a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter. The client asks the nurse why he keeps getting these massive infections. Which pathophysiologic mechanism should the nurse describe in response to the client's question?

• A. Bone marrow suppression of white blood cells causes insufficient cells to phagocytize organisms.
• B. Exposure to multiple environmental infectious agents overburdens the immune system until it fails.
• C. The humoral immune response lacks B cells that form antibodies and opportunistic infections result.
• D. Inadequate numbers of T lymphocytes are available to initiate cellular immunity and macrophages.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: With a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter, the client's immune system is severely compromised, leading to opportunistic infections.

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