HESI LPN
Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI
1. A male client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) and Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia has a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter. The client asks the nurse why he keeps getting these massive infections. Which pathophysiologic mechanism should the nurse describe in response to the client's question?
- A. Bone marrow suppression of white blood cells causes insufficient cells to phagocytize organisms.
- B. Exposure to multiple environmental infectious agents overburdens the immune system until it fails.
- C. The humoral immune response lacks B cells that form antibodies and opportunistic infections result.
- D. Inadequate numbers of T lymphocytes are available to initiate cellular immunity and macrophages.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: With a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter, the client's immune system is severely compromised, leading to opportunistic infections.
2. Methotrexate is prescribed for a client with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) who is also taking aspirin. What is the best explanation for the nurse to provide as to why a second medication has been added?
- A. Methotrexate slows the disease progression while aspirin controls the symptoms.
- B. Methotrexate helps to reduce the side effects of aspirin.
- C. Methotrexate has fewer harmful side effects than aspirin.
- D. Methotrexate enhances the effect of aspirin.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Methotrexate is a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) that slows the progression of rheumatoid arthritis (RA), while aspirin helps control symptoms such as pain and inflammation. Therefore, the combination of methotrexate and aspirin is beneficial in managing RA by addressing both disease progression and symptom control. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because methotrexate is not added to reduce the side effects of aspirin, has different side effects compared to aspirin, and does not enhance the effect of aspirin.
3. The nurse caring for a hospitalized older client with a left hip fracture as a result of a fall at home notices different assessment findings. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Pain rated 7/10 on the pain scale.
- B. Mild swelling at the fracture site.
- C. Small amount of bleeding from the surgical site.
- D. Left extremity capillary refill greater than 5 seconds.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A left extremity capillary refill greater than 5 seconds indicates poor blood flow to the extremity, which is a sign of compromised circulation. This finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse to prevent complications such as tissue damage or necrosis. Choices A, B, and C are important assessments but do not indicate an immediate need for intervention like the delayed capillary refill in choice D.
4. The cognitive impairment is classified into four levels based on the intelligence quotient (IQ). How is a child with an IQ of 45 classified?
- A. Within the normal low range
- B. Educable
- C. Trainable
- D. Severe
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A child with an IQ of 45 is classified as 'Trainable' in the context of cognitive impairment levels. This category is determined by an IQ range of 35 to 55. Choice A ('Within the normal low range') is incorrect as an IQ of 45 falls within the range associated with the 'Trainable' level, not the 'Normal low range.' Choice B ('Educable') is incorrect because this classification typically corresponds to individuals with slightly higher IQs that allow for academic progress with support. Choice D ('Severe') is incorrect as it does not align with the IQ level of 45, which falls within the 'Trainable' category.
5. The nurse is assessing a client who has herpes zoster. Which question will allow the nurse to gather further information about this condition?
- A. Has everyone at home already had varicella?
- B. Have the antifungal creams been effective?
- C. Do your family members share combs and brushes?
- D. Do you have any dry patches on your feet and hands?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Has everyone at home already had varicella?' Herpes zoster (shingles) is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, the same virus that causes chickenpox. By knowing if others at home had varicella (chickenpox), the nurse can assess the risk of transmission and provide appropriate guidance. Choice B is incorrect because antifungal creams are not effective for herpes zoster, which is a viral infection. Choice C is irrelevant to herpes zoster as it pertains to sharing personal items that may transmit head lice or certain skin infections. Choice D is also unrelated as it focuses on dry patches, not typical manifestations of herpes zoster which presents as a painful rash.
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