HESI LPN
Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI
1. A male client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) and Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia has a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter. The client asks the nurse why he keeps getting these massive infections. Which pathophysiologic mechanism should the nurse describe in response to the client's question?
- A. Bone marrow suppression of white blood cells causes insufficient cells to phagocytize organisms.
- B. Exposure to multiple environmental infectious agents overburdens the immune system until it fails.
- C. The humoral immune response lacks B cells that form antibodies and opportunistic infections result.
- D. Inadequate numbers of T lymphocytes are available to initiate cellular immunity and macrophages.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: With a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter, the client's immune system is severely compromised, leading to opportunistic infections.
2. An older adult woman with a long history of COPD is admitted with progressive shortness of breath and a persistent cough, is anxious, and is complaining of dry mouth. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer a prescribed sedative
- B. Encourage client to drink water
- C. Apply a high flow venturi mask
- D. Assist her to an upright position
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Assisting the client to an upright position is the most appropriate intervention in this situation. Placing the client upright helps improve lung expansion by reducing diaphragmatic pressure, facilitating better air exchange, and increasing oxygenation. This position also aids in easing breathing efforts. Administering a sedative (Choice A) may further depress the respiratory system, worsening the breathing problem. Encouraging the client to drink water (Choice B) may not directly address the respiratory distress caused by COPD. Applying a high flow venturi mask (Choice C) may be beneficial in some cases but assisting the client to an upright position should be the priority to optimize respiratory function.
3. How should the nurse measure urinary output for an infant with dehydration?
- A. Attaching a urine collecting bag
- B. Wringing out the diaper
- C. Weighing the diaper
- D. Inserting a catheter
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct way to measure urinary output for an infant with dehydration is by weighing the diaper. Wet diapers are weighed to assess the amount of output accurately. Attaching a urine collecting bag and inserting a catheter are invasive methods not typically used for routine measurement of urinary output in infants. Wringing out the diaper can lead to inaccurate measurements and is not a recommended method for assessing urinary output.
4. When interacting with the parents of a SIDS infant, the nurse should attempt to assist the parents with:
- A. Encouraging the parents to have another baby.
- B. Encouraging the parents to remain stoic.
- C. Allaying feelings of guilt and blame.
- D. Learning how the event could have been prevented.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Allaying feelings of guilt and blame. When parents experience the loss of a SIDS infant, they often struggle with intense feelings of guilt and self-blame. The nurse's role is to provide emotional support and help alleviate these feelings. Choices A and B are incorrect as encouraging the parents to have another baby or to remain stoic is not appropriate or helpful in this situation. Choice D is also incorrect because focusing on how the event could have been prevented may exacerbate feelings of guilt and is not the immediate priority in supporting grieving parents.
5. Since children with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) take medication for long periods of time, side effects must be considered. How often should children be assessed for side effects of the drug therapy?
- A. Every 2 months
- B. Every 4 months
- C. Every 6 months
- D. Every 8 months
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Children with ADHD who are on long-term medication therapy should be assessed for side effects every 6 months. This timeframe allows healthcare providers to monitor the effects of the medication and make any necessary adjustments. Checking every 2 months (Choice A) may be too frequent and not practical for routine monitoring, while checking every 4 or 8 months (Choices B and D) may lead to missing potential side effects or delays in addressing them.
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