Nursing Elites

1. A client with AIDS has impaired gas exchange from a respiratory infection. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Elevated temperature
• B. Generalized weakness
• C. Diminished lung sounds
• D. Pain when swallowing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with AIDS and impaired gas exchange from a respiratory infection, pain when swallowing can indicate esophageal involvement, such as esophagitis or an esophageal infection like candidiasis. These conditions can significantly impact the client's ability to take in nutrition and medications, leading to complications like dehydration and malnutrition. Therefore, immediate intervention is required to address the underlying cause and prevent further complications. Elevated temperature (choice A) may indicate infection but does not directly address the impaired gas exchange. Generalized weakness (choice B) and diminished lung sounds (choice C) are concerning but do not directly relate to the immediate need for intervention in the context of esophageal involvement in a client with impaired gas exchange.

2. What is the most effective therapy for maintaining remission of acute lymphoblastic leukemia in a child?

• A. Surgery to remove enlarged lymph nodes
• B. Long-term chemotherapy
• C. Nutritional supplements to enhance blood cell production
• D. Blood transfusions to replace ineffective red cells

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Long-term chemotherapy. In the case of acute lymphoblastic leukemia, the most effective approach for maintaining remission is long-term chemotherapy, particularly with methotrexate, a chemotherapeutic agent. Surgery to remove enlarged lymph nodes (choice A) is not the primary treatment for leukemia. Nutritional supplements (choice C) may be beneficial for overall health but are not the mainstay of leukemia treatment. Blood transfusions (choice D) are used to manage anemia in leukemia but do not address the underlying disease process.

3. While assisting a female client to the toilet, the client begins to have a seizure, and the nurse eases her to the floor. The nurse calls for help and monitors the client until the seizing stops. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Document details of the seizure activity.
• B. Observe for lacerations on the tongue.
• C. Observe for prolonged periods of apnea.
• D. Evaluate for evidence of incontinence.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Documenting details of the seizure activity is the priority intervention as it is crucial for medical records and future care planning. This documentation can provide vital information for healthcare providers in understanding the type, duration, and characteristics of the seizure. Observing for lacerations on the tongue, prolonged periods of apnea, or evidence of incontinence are important assessments, but they come after documenting the seizure activity.

4. Ten hours following thrombolysis for an ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), a client is receiving a lidocaine infusion for isolated runs of ventricular tachycardia. Which finding should the nurse document in the EMR as a therapeutic response to the lidocaine infusion?

• A. Stabilization of BP ranges
• B. Cessation of chest pain
• C. Reduced heart rate
• D. Decreased frequency of episodes of VT

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Decreased frequency of ventricular tachycardia (VT) episodes indicates that the lidocaine infusion is effectively managing the ventricular tachycardia. Stabilization of BP ranges (choice A) may not directly correlate with the therapeutic response to lidocaine for VT. Cessation of chest pain (choice B) may indicate pain relief but does not specifically address the effectiveness of lidocaine for VT. Reduced heart rate (choice C) is not a direct indicator of the response to lidocaine for managing VT.

5. A client with a spinal cord injury at the level of T1 is at risk for autonomic dysreflexia. Which symptom is indicative of this condition?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Severe headache
• D. Flushed skin below the level of injury

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a condition commonly seen in clients with spinal cord injuries at T6 or above. It is characterized by a sudden onset of severe hypertension, pounding headache, profuse sweating, nasal congestion, and flushing of the skin above the level of injury. The severe headache is a key symptom resulting from uncontrolled hypertension. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as autonomic dysreflexia typically presents with hypertension, not hypotension, tachycardia, or flushed skin below the level of injury.

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