Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare worker with no known exposure to tuberculosis has received a Mantoux tuberculosis skin test. The nurse's assessment of the test after 62 hours indicates 5mm of erythema without induration. Which is the best initial nursing action?

• A. Review the healthcare worker's history for possible exposure to TB.
• B. Instruct the healthcare worker to return for a repeat test in 1 week.
• C. Refer the healthcare worker to a healthcare provider for isoniazid (INH) therapy.
• D. Document negative results in the healthcare worker's medical record.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A Mantoux tuberculosis skin test without induration is considered negative. In this case, with 5mm of erythema and no induration, the result is negative, indicating no current infection. The best initial nursing action is to document these negative results in the healthcare worker's medical record. Reviewing the history for possible exposure to TB is unnecessary as the test result is negative. Instructing the healthcare worker to return for a repeat test or referring for INH therapy is not warranted when the test is negative.

2. Before selecting which medication to administer, which action should the nurse implement if a postoperative client reports incisional pain and has two prescriptions for PRN analgesia?

• A. Compare the client’s pain scale rating with the prescribed dosing.
• B. Determine which prescription will have the quickest onset of action.
• C. Ask the client to choose which medication is needed for the pain.
• D. Document the client’s report of pain in the electronic medical record.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a postoperative client reports incisional pain and has two prescriptions for PRN analgesia, the nurse should first compare the client’s pain scale rating with the prescribed dosing. This action ensures that the client receives the appropriate medication based on their pain level. Determining the onset of action or asking the client to choose the medication does not guarantee that the right medication is administered according to the pain intensity. Documenting the pain report is important but should not be the first action when deciding which medication to administer.

3. Which signs/symptoms would be considered classical signs of meningeal irritation?

• A. Positive Kernig sign, diarrhea, and headache
• B. Negative Brudzinski sign, positive Kernig sign, and irritability
• C. Positive Brudzinski sign, positive Kernig sign, and photophobia
• D. Negative Kernig sign, vomiting, and fever

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Positive Brudzinski sign, positive Kernig sign, and photophobia are considered classical signs of meningeal irritation. The Kernig sign is positive when the leg is extended at the knee and then raised, resulting in pain and resistance. The Brudzinski sign is positive when flexing the neck causes flexion of the hips and knees due to meningeal irritation. Photophobia, or sensitivity to light, is a common symptom due to meningeal inflammation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not include the classic signs associated with meningeal irritation.

4. A client with rheumatoid arthritis has elevated serum rheumatoid factor. Which interpretation of this finding should the nurse make?

• A. Evidence of spread of the disease to the kidney.
• B. Confirmation of the autoimmune disease process.
• C. Representative of a decline in the client's condition.
• D. Indication of the onset of joint degeneration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct interpretation of elevated serum rheumatoid factor in a client with rheumatoid arthritis is confirmation of the autoimmune disease process. Rheumatoid factor is a marker for autoimmune activity, thus confirming the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Choice A is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor does not specifically indicate spread of the disease to the kidney. Choice C is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor does not always represent a decline in the client's condition. Choice D is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor is not an indication of the onset of joint degeneration, but rather points towards autoimmune activity.

5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presented with shortness of breath. Oxygen therapy was started at 2 liters/minute via nasal cannula. The arterial blood gases (ABGs) after treatment were pH 7.36, PaO2 52, PaCO2 59, HCO3 33. Which statement describes the most likely cause of the simultaneous increase in both PaO2 and PaCO2?

• A. The client is hyperventilating due to anxiety.
• B. The hypoxic drive was reduced by the oxygen therapy.
• C. The client is experiencing respiratory alkalosis.
• D. The client is experiencing metabolic acidosis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oxygen therapy can reduce the hypoxic drive in COPD patients, leading to increased PaCO2 levels while improving oxygenation (PaO2). In this case, the increase in PaO2 and PaCO2 is due to the reduction of the hypoxic drive by the supplemental oxygen. Choice A is incorrect because hyperventilation would lead to decreased PaCO2. Choice C is incorrect as the ABG values do not indicate respiratory alkalosis. Choice D is incorrect as the ABG values do not support metabolic acidosis.

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