Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is evaluating teaching about drug therapy to treat gout. Which statement by the client demonstrates an understanding of the use of allopurinol to treat Gout?

• A. I need to take the prescribed amount of the drug to get rid of my gout.
• B. I need to take this drug every day to keep from having any flare-ups.
• C. I should take this drug when I have gout attacks to reduce symptoms.
• D. The pain and swelling can be controlled by taking this drug every day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Taking allopurinol every day helps to prevent gout flare-ups by reducing uric acid levels.

2. The mother of a child who has been diagnosed with varicella asks the nurse when the child can return to school. When is the child no longer contagious?

• A. When the fever dissipates
• B. After the incubation period
• C. When the lesions have healed
• D. When the lesions are crusted over

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'When the lesions are crusted over.' Varicella is no longer contagious once the lesions are dry and crusted. This stage indicates that the active viral shedding has significantly decreased, reducing the risk of transmission. Choice A, 'When the fever dissipates,' is incorrect because the presence of fever does not necessarily correlate with the contagiousness of varicella. Choice B, 'After the incubation period,' is incorrect as the incubation period occurs before the onset of symptoms and is not relevant to determining contagiousness. Choice C, 'When the lesions have healed,' is incorrect as healed lesions can still be contagious if they are not crusted over.

3. The nurse is preparing a client for surgery who was admitted to the emergency center following a motor vehicle collision. The client has an open fracture of the femur and is bleeding moderately from the bone protrusion site.

• A. Ensure the client is NPO and document the last meal.
• B. Administer pain medication as prescribed.
• C. Apply a sterile dressing to the wound site.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider of the client’s medication history.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action is to notify the healthcare provider of the client's medication history. This is important because understanding the client’s medication history, especially if they are taking anticoagulants or other medications that could affect bleeding and surgery, is crucial in ensuring safe management of the client's condition. Option A, ensuring the client is NPO and documenting the last meal, is important but not the priority in this situation. Administering pain medication (Option B) should only be done after ensuring the client's safety and stability. Applying a sterile dressing (Option C) is also important but not as critical as informing the healthcare provider of the medication history.

4. A client is admitted to the emergency department with symptoms of arm numbness, chest pain, and nausea/vomiting. The examining healthcare provider believes that the client has experienced an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) within the past three hours and would like to initiate tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) therapy. Which client history findings contraindicate the use of tPA?

• A. Treats hypoglycemia with an oral hypoglycemic agent.
• B. Had a cerebrovascular hemorrhage 2 months ago.
• C. Current age 65, father died of MI at 55.
• D. Report of being intolerant of medication that contains aspirin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A history of cerebrovascular hemorrhage is a contraindication for tPA therapy due to the risk of bleeding. Choice A is incorrect because treating hypoglycemia with an oral hypoglycemic agent is not a contraindication for tPA therapy. Choice C is incorrect as age and family history of MI do not contraindicate the use of tPA. Choice D is incorrect as being intolerant of medication containing aspirin is not a contraindication for tPA therapy.

5. A client is receiving a continuous infusion of normal saline at 125 ml/hour post abdominal surgery. The client is drowsy and complaining of constant abdominal pain and a headache. Urine output is 800 ml over the past 24h with a central venous pressure of 15 mmHg. The nurse notes respiratory crackle and bounding central pulses. Vital signs: temperature 101.2°F, Heart rate 96 beats/min, Respirations 24 breaths/min, and Blood pressure 160/90 mmHg. Which interventions should the nurse implement first?

• A. Review the last administration of IV pain medication.
• B. Administer a PRN dose of acetaminophen.
• C. Decrease IV fluids to keep the vein open (KVO) rate.
• D. Calculate total intake and output.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease IV fluids to the keep vein open (KVO) rate. The client is showing signs of fluid volume excess, such as drowsiness, headache, elevated CVP, crackles, bounding pulses, and increased blood pressure. Decreasing the IV fluids will help prevent further fluid overload. Reviewing the last administration of IV pain medication (Choice A) may be necessary but addressing the fluid balance issue is the priority. Administering a PRN dose of acetaminophen (Choice B) may help with the headache but does not address the underlying fluid overload. Calculating total intake and output (Choice D) is important but does not directly address the immediate issue of fluid overload and its associated symptoms.

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