Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is evaluating teaching about drug therapy to treat gout. Which statement by the client demonstrates an understanding of the use of allopurinol to treat Gout?

• A. I need to take the prescribed amount of the drug to get rid of my gout.
• B. I need to take this drug every day to keep from having any flare-ups.
• C. I should take this drug when I have gout attacks to reduce symptoms.
• D. The pain and swelling can be controlled by taking this drug every day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Taking allopurinol every day helps to prevent gout flare-ups by reducing uric acid levels.

2. The nurse is teaching a client how to collect a sputum specimen. Which steps should the nurse instruct the client to follow when collecting sputum?

• A. Breathe deeply, followed by swallowing.
• B. Breathe deeply, followed by spitting into a cup.
• C. Breathe deeply, followed by coughing up the sputum.
• D. Breathe deeply, followed by clearing the throat.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to breathe deeply followed by coughing up the sputum. This method ensures that the specimen is collected from the lower respiratory tract and is not contaminated by saliva. Choice A (swallowing) does not result in sputum collection, while choice B (spitting into a cup) may lead to saliva contamination. Choice D (clearing the throat) is not an effective way to collect sputum as it may involve getting rid of saliva, not sputum.

3. A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed methimazole. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Agranulocytosis
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Agranulocytosis. Methimazole, used to treat hyperthyroidism, can lead to agranulocytosis, a severe decrease in white blood cells. This condition increases the risk of infections and requires immediate medical attention. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is not a common adverse effect of methimazole. Bradycardia (choice C) is unlikely as methimazole tends to have minimal effects on heart rate. Hypercalcemia (choice D) is not associated with methimazole use.

4. A client with a spinal cord injury at the level of T1 is at risk for autonomic dysreflexia. Which symptom is indicative of this condition?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Severe headache
• D. Flushed skin below the level of injury

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a condition commonly seen in clients with spinal cord injuries at T6 or above. It is characterized by a sudden onset of severe hypertension, pounding headache, profuse sweating, nasal congestion, and flushing of the skin above the level of injury. The severe headache is a key symptom resulting from uncontrolled hypertension. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as autonomic dysreflexia typically presents with hypertension, not hypotension, tachycardia, or flushed skin below the level of injury.

5. A client with ulcerative colitis is experiencing frequent diarrhea. What is the priority nursing diagnosis?

• A. Risk for impaired skin integrity
• B. Fluid volume deficit
• C. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements
• D. Activity intolerance

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fluid volume deficit. In a client with ulcerative colitis experiencing frequent diarrhea, the priority nursing diagnosis is addressing the potential fluid volume deficit due to significant fluid loss. Maintaining adequate hydration is crucial to prevent complications associated with dehydration. While choices A, C, and D can also be concerns for a client with ulcerative colitis, addressing fluid volume deficit takes precedence as it directly impacts the client's physiological stability and can lead to serious complications if not managed promptly.

Similar Questions