Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is evaluating teaching about drug therapy to treat gout. Which statement by the client demonstrates an understanding of the use of allopurinol to treat Gout?

• A. I need to take the prescribed amount of the drug to get rid of my gout.
• B. I need to take this drug every day to keep from having any flare-ups.
• C. I should take this drug when I have gout attacks to reduce symptoms.
• D. The pain and swelling can be controlled by taking this drug every day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Taking allopurinol every day helps to prevent gout flare-ups by reducing uric acid levels.

2. The nurse is preparing a client for surgery who was admitted to the emergency center following a motor vehicle collision. The client has an open fracture of the femur and is bleeding moderately from the bone protrusion site.

• A. Ensure the client is NPO and document the last meal.
• B. Administer pain medication as prescribed.
• C. Apply a sterile dressing to the wound site.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider of the client’s medication history.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action is to notify the healthcare provider of the client's medication history. This is important because understanding the client’s medication history, especially if they are taking anticoagulants or other medications that could affect bleeding and surgery, is crucial in ensuring safe management of the client's condition. Option A, ensuring the client is NPO and documenting the last meal, is important but not the priority in this situation. Administering pain medication (Option B) should only be done after ensuring the client's safety and stability. Applying a sterile dressing (Option C) is also important but not as critical as informing the healthcare provider of the medication history.

3. After hospitalization for SIADH, a client develops pontine myelinolysis. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Reorient the client to the room
• B. Place an eye patch on one eye
• C. Evaluate the client's ability to swallow
• D. Perform range of motion exercises

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Evaluating the client's ability to swallow is the priority intervention in this scenario. Pontine myelinolysis can affect neurological functions, including swallowing ability, putting the client at risk for aspiration. Assessing the client's ability to swallow will help prevent complications such as aspiration pneumonia. Reorienting the client to the room, placing an eye patch, or performing range of motion exercises are not as critical as ensuring the client can safely swallow.

4. A client is receiving intravenous potassium chloride for hypokalemia. Which action should the nurse take to prevent complications during the infusion?

• A. Administer the infusion rapidly
• B. Monitor the infusion site for signs of infiltration
• C. Use a syringe pump for the infusion
• D. Flush the IV line with normal saline before starting the infusion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action to prevent complications during the infusion of potassium chloride is to monitor the infusion site for signs of infiltration. Rapid administration can lead to adverse effects, including cardiac arrhythmias. Using a syringe pump is not typically necessary for this infusion. Flushing the IV line with normal saline is a good practice but not directly related to preventing complications specifically during the infusion of potassium chloride.

5. In the change of shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?

• A. Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.
• B. Intact skin with non-blanchable redness.
• C. Full-thickness tissue loss with visible fat.
• D. Full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.' Stage 2 pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss and typically appear as shallow open ulcers with a red-pink wound bed. Choice B describes a stage 1 ulcer, where the skin is intact but shows non-blanchable redness. Choice C describes a stage 3 ulcer, with full-thickness tissue loss exposing fat. Choice D is characteristic of a stage 4 ulcer, where there is full-thickness tissue loss exposing bone, tendon, or muscle. Therefore, option A best fits the description of a stage 2 pressure ulcer.

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