a client with chronic kidney disease is advised to follow a low phosphorus diet which food should the client avoid
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1. A client with chronic kidney disease is advised to follow a low-phosphorus diet. Which food should the client avoid?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Milk. Milk is high in phosphorus and should be avoided in a low-phosphorus diet for clients with chronic kidney disease. Choice B (Apples), C (Carrots), and D (Rice) are not significant sources of phosphorus and can be included in moderation in a low-phosphorus diet. Apples and carrots are generally considered healthy choices for most individuals, while rice is a staple food that is low in phosphorus and can be part of a renal diet.

2. The client with chronic venous insufficiency is being taught about self-care measures. Which instruction should be included?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with chronic venous insufficiency is to elevate their legs above heart level when resting. This position helps reduce venous pressure and edema, improving circulation. Avoiding compression stockings (choice A) is incorrect as they are beneficial in managing chronic venous insufficiency. Applying heat packs (choice C) is not recommended as heat can worsen edema. Limiting walking (choice D) is not advisable as regular, gentle exercise like walking can actually help improve circulation in patients with chronic venous insufficiency.

3. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports to the nurse that a client with a postoperative wound infection has a temperature of 103.8°F, blood pressure 90/70, pulse 124 beats/min, and respirations of 28 breaths/min. When the nurse assesses the client's findings, they include a mottled skin appearance and confusion. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to initiate an infusion of intravenous (IV) fluids. In this scenario, the client is showing signs of sepsis, indicated by a high temperature, low blood pressure, rapid heart rate, and increased respiratory rate. Mottled skin appearance and confusion are also signs of poor perfusion. Initiating IV fluids is crucial in treating sepsis to maintain blood pressure and perfusion. Obtaining a wound specimen for culture (Choice A) can be important but is not the priority at this moment. Transferring the client to the ICU (Choice C) can be considered after stabilizing the client. Assessing the client's core temperature (Choice D) is not the immediate priority compared to addressing the signs of sepsis and poor perfusion.

4. A client with liver cirrhosis is at risk for developing hepatic encephalopathy. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Asterixis, also known as a flapping tremor, is a common sign of hepatic encephalopathy, indicating neurological dysfunction due to liver failure. Kussmaul respirations (option A) are associated with metabolic acidosis, which is not a typical manifestation of hepatic encephalopathy. Bradycardia (option C) and hypertension (option D) are not typically associated with hepatic encephalopathy; in fact, hepatic encephalopathy is more commonly associated with alterations in mental status, neuromuscular abnormalities, and changes in behavior.

5. What is the main characteristic of cystic fibrosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The main characteristic of cystic fibrosis is the production of excessive, thick mucus. This thick mucus leads to blockages in the airways, digestive system, and other organs. Choice A is incorrect because while individuals with cystic fibrosis are more prone to respiratory infections, the main characteristic is the mucus production. Choice B is incorrect as cystic fibrosis is characterized by the overproduction, not underproduction, of exocrine glands. Choice D is also incorrect as the mucus produced in cystic fibrosis is thick, not thin.

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