Nursing Elites

1. The settings on a client's synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV) are respiratory rate 12 breaths/minute, tidal volume at 600 mL, FiO2 35%, and positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) 5 cm H2O. Which assessment finding necessitates immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Bilateral crackles in the lung bases.
• B. Low-pressure indicator alarm.
• C. Oxygen saturation of 91%.
• D. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low-pressure alarm may indicate a disconnection or leak in the system, which needs immediate intervention. Bilateral crackles in the lung bases may indicate fluid overload but do not require immediate intervention in this case. An oxygen saturation of 91% is concerning but not as urgent as a potential equipment issue. A respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute is higher than the set rate but may not necessitate immediate intervention unless accompanied by other distress symptoms.

2. The nurse is teaching a client about coronary artery disease (CAD) preventive health. Which behavior stated by the client indicates a need for additional information and teaching?

• A. Increasing physical activity.
• B. Eating a low-fat diet.
• C. Decreasing the number of cigarettes smoked per day.
• D. Monitoring blood pressure regularly.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Decreasing the number of cigarettes smoked per day is not sufficient for CAD prevention. Smoking cessation is crucial in reducing the risk of CAD. While increasing physical activity, eating a low-fat diet, and monitoring blood pressure regularly are all positive behaviors for CAD prevention, quitting smoking should be emphasized due to its significant impact on cardiovascular health.

3. A client admitted to a surgical unit is being evaluated for an intestinal obstruction. The HCP prescribes an NG tube to be inserted and placed on intermittent low wall suction. Which intervention should the nurse implement to facilitate proper tube placement?

• A. Soak the NG tube in warm water
• B. Insert the tube with the client's head tilted back
• C. Apply suction while inserting the tube
• D. Elevate the head of the bed 60 to 90 degrees

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed 60 to 90 degrees is the correct intervention to facilitate proper placement of the NG tube. This position helps to use gravity to guide the tube smoothly into the gastrointestinal tract. Soaking the NG tube in warm water (Choice A) is not necessary for proper placement. Inserting the tube with the client's head tilted back (Choice B) can cause discomfort and may lead to improper placement. Applying suction while inserting the tube (Choice C) is not recommended as it can cause trauma to the nasal passages and esophagus.

4. The nurse is caring for a child who has been diagnosed with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). What is the most important intervention for the nurse?

• A. Help the child enroll in a special education class.
• B. Allay any feelings of guilt the parents may have.
• C. Explain to the parents that medications are lifelong.
• D. Teach the parents how to set limits.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important intervention for the nurse in caring for a child with ADHD is to allay any feelings of guilt the parents may have. Parents of children with ADHD often experience guilt or self-blame, thinking they are responsible for their child's condition. By addressing and alleviating these feelings, the nurse can support the parents in a crucial way. Choice A is not the most important intervention because enrolling the child in a special education class might be a consideration but does not address the emotional needs of the parents. Choice C is incorrect because stating that medications are lifelong may cause unnecessary distress to the parents. Choice D is also not the most important intervention as setting limits is important but not as critical as addressing parental guilt and emotions.

5. In the change of shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?

• A. Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.
• B. Intact skin with non-blanchable redness.
• C. Full-thickness tissue loss with visible fat.
• D. Full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.' Stage 2 pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss and typically appear as shallow open ulcers with a red-pink wound bed. Choice B describes a stage 1 ulcer, where the skin is intact but shows non-blanchable redness. Choice C describes a stage 3 ulcer, with full-thickness tissue loss exposing fat. Choice D is characteristic of a stage 4 ulcer, where there is full-thickness tissue loss exposing bone, tendon, or muscle. Therefore, option A best fits the description of a stage 2 pressure ulcer.

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