Nursing Elites

1. What is the hallmark sign of intussusception?

• A. Mucus-like stools
• B. Currant jelly-like stools
• C. Tarry, black stools
• D. Green, soft stools

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The hallmark sign of intussusception is currant jelly-like stools, which result from the mixture of blood and mucus in the stool due to the sloughing of intestinal mucosa. Mucus-like stools (Choice A) are not typically associated with intussusception. Tarry, black stools (Choice C) are characteristic of gastrointestinal bleeding higher up in the gastrointestinal tract, such as from a peptic ulcer. Green, soft stools (Choice D) are more indicative of rapid transit through the intestines, possibly due to dietary factors or infections such as gastroenteritis.

2. The nurse explains to the parents of a child with developmental hip dysplasia that the application of a Pavlik harness is necessary. In what position will the harness hold the child's femurs?

• A. Abduction
• B. Adduction
• C. Flexion
• D. Extension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Abduction. The use of the Pavlik harness is to maintain the hips in abduction for 4 to 6 months to treat developmental hip dysplasia. This position helps in stabilizing the hip joint and promoting proper growth and development. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the Pavlik harness specifically aims to hold the child's femurs in abduction, not adduction, flexion, or extension.

3. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports to the nurse that a client with a postoperative wound infection has a temperature of 103.8°F, blood pressure 90/70, pulse 124 beats/min, and respirations of 28 breaths/min. When the nurse assesses the client's findings, they include a mottled skin appearance and confusion. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Obtain a wound specimen for culture.
• B. Initiate an infusion of intravenous (IV) fluids.
• C. Transfer the client to the ICU.
• D. Assess the client's core temperature.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to initiate an infusion of intravenous (IV) fluids. In this scenario, the client is showing signs of sepsis, indicated by a high temperature, low blood pressure, rapid heart rate, and increased respiratory rate. Mottled skin appearance and confusion are also signs of poor perfusion. Initiating IV fluids is crucial in treating sepsis to maintain blood pressure and perfusion. Obtaining a wound specimen for culture (Choice A) can be important but is not the priority at this moment. Transferring the client to the ICU (Choice C) can be considered after stabilizing the client. Assessing the client's core temperature (Choice D) is not the immediate priority compared to addressing the signs of sepsis and poor perfusion.

4. The nurse empties the nasogastric suction collection canister of a client who had a bowel resection the previous day and notes that 1,000 mL of gastric secretions were collected in the last 4 hours. The nurse should assess the client for symptoms of which related problem?

• A. Respiratory acidosis.
• B. Metabolic alkalosis.
• C. Hypoglycemia.
• D. Hyperkalemia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Metabolic alkalosis. Loss of gastric secretions can lead to metabolic alkalosis due to the loss of hydrochloric acid. This can result in an increase in blood pH levels. Respiratory acidosis (choice A) is caused by retention of carbon dioxide, not related to the loss of gastric secretions. Hypoglycemia (choice C) is a low blood sugar level and is not directly related to the loss of gastric secretions. Hyperkalemia (choice D) is an elevated potassium level in the blood and is not typically associated with the loss of gastric secretions.

5. An adolescent female asks the nurse about taking retinoic acid (Accutane). What guidance should be provided by the nurse?

• A. The medication should be used for 10 weeks only.
• B. The medication requires that sexually active females use contraception.
• C. The medication lowers hemoglobin levels very quickly.
• D. The medication has few side effects.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct guidance the nurse should provide is that sexually active females must use contraception while taking Accutane and for 1 month after the 20 weeks it is prescribed. Choice A is incorrect because Accutane is typically taken for a longer duration than 10 weeks. Choice C is incorrect because Accutane does not lower hemoglobin levels quickly. Choice D is incorrect as Accutane is known for having many side effects, including the risk of birth defects.

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