what is the hallmark sign of intussusception
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HESI Test Bank Medical Surgical Nursing

1. What is the hallmark sign of intussusception?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The hallmark sign of intussusception is currant jelly-like stools, which result from the mixture of blood and mucus in the stool due to the sloughing of intestinal mucosa. Mucus-like stools (Choice A) are not typically associated with intussusception. Tarry, black stools (Choice C) are characteristic of gastrointestinal bleeding higher up in the gastrointestinal tract, such as from a peptic ulcer. Green, soft stools (Choice D) are more indicative of rapid transit through the intestines, possibly due to dietary factors or infections such as gastroenteritis.

2. When speaking to young parents, the nurse states that lead poisoning is one of the most common preventable health problems affecting children. What condition occurs when the level of lead ingested exceeds the amount that can be absorbed by the bone?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anemia. When the amount of lead ingested exceeds the amount that can be absorbed by the bone, it leads to anemia. Malnutrition (Choice A) is a state of inadequate nutrition, not directly related to lead poisoning. Bone pain (Choice C) is a symptom of lead poisoning due to its effects on bones but not directly related to lead ingestion exceeding absorption. Diarrhea (Choice D) is not a direct consequence of lead ingestion exceeding absorption by bones.

3. The nurse uses a diagram to show that the tetralogy of Fallot involves a combination of four congenital defects. What are the defects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy. Tetralogy of Fallot involves these four congenital defects. Choice A is incorrect because it includes aortic stenosis instead of pulmonary stenosis, atrial septal defect instead of ventricular septal defect, and left ventricular hypertrophy instead of right ventricular hypertrophy. Choice C is incorrect as it includes aortic stenosis and atrial septal defect instead of pulmonary stenosis and ventricular septal defect. Choice D is incorrect because it includes aortic hypertrophy instead of overriding aorta.

4. Which nursing diagnosis should be selected for a client who is receiving thrombolytic infusions for treatment of an acute myocardial infarction?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Thrombolytic therapy increases the risk of bleeding, not infection, fluid volume deficit, or impaired skin integrity. The most significant concern with thrombolytic therapy is the potential for bleeding complications, which can lead to various injuries. Therefore, 'Risk for injury related to effects of thrombolysis' is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis in this scenario. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not directly correlate with the primary risk associated with thrombolytic therapy.

5. Fluids are restricted to 1500 ml/day for a male client with AKI. He is frustrated and complaining of constant thirst, and the nurse discovers that the family is providing the client with additional fluids. What intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should provide the client with oral swabs to moisten his mouth. This intervention helps alleviate the client's thirst without increasing fluid intake, which is essential in managing AKI. Removing all sources of liquids from the client's room (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue of thirst and could lead to increased frustration. Allowing the family to give the client ice chips (Choice B) would add to the client's fluid intake, contradicting the restriction. Restricting family visiting (Choice C) is not necessary and does not directly address the client's thirst.

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