Nursing Elites

1. A male client with Herpes Zoster (shingles) on his thorax tells the nurse that he is having difficulty sleeping. What is the etiology of this problem?

• A. Pain
• B. Nocturia
• C. Dyspnea
• D. Frequent cough

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pain. The pain caused by Herpes Zoster (shingles) can disrupt sleep patterns. It is a common symptom of shingles and can lead to difficulty falling asleep or staying asleep. Nocturia (B), dyspnea (C), and frequent cough (D) are not typically associated with shingles and would not directly cause difficulty sleeping in this scenario.

2. Which type of lipoprotein is associated with decreasing the risk of atherosclerosis?

• A. High-density lipoprotein (HDL)
• B. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL)
• C. Very low-density lipoprotein (VLDL)
• D. Intermediate-density lipoprotein (IDL)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is High-density lipoprotein (HDL). HDL is known as 'good' cholesterol because it helps remove cholesterol from the arteries, reducing the risk of atherosclerosis. LDL (choice B) is considered 'bad' cholesterol as it can deposit cholesterol in the arteries, increasing the risk of atherosclerosis. VLDL (choice C) and IDL (choice D) are also associated with increased risk of atherosclerosis rather than decreasing it.

3. After a CT scan with intravenous contrast medium, a client returns to the room complaining of shortness of breath and itching. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Call respiratory therapy to administer a breathing treatment.
• B. Send for an emergency tracheostomy set.
• C. Prepare a dose of epinephrine.
• D. Review the client's complete list of allergies.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Preparing a dose of epinephrine is the correct intervention in this situation as the client is displaying symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction to the contrast medium used during the CT scan. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis due to its ability to reverse the symptoms rapidly. Calling respiratory therapy for a breathing treatment (Choice A) may not address the underlying allergic reaction and delay appropriate treatment. Sending for an emergency tracheostomy set (Choice B) is not indicated as the client's symptoms suggest an allergic reaction rather than airway obstruction. Reviewing the client's complete list of allergies (Choice D) is important but would not provide immediate relief for the client's current symptoms; administering epinephrine takes precedence in this situation.

4. Which instruction should be included in the discharge teaching plan for a client who has had a cataract extraction today?

• A. Use a metal eye shield on the operative eye during the day.
• B. Administer eye ointment after applying eye drops.
• C. Light housekeeping is safe to do, but avoid heavy lifting.
• D. Refrain from sexual activities until follow-up appointment.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the discharge teaching plan for a client who has had a cataract extraction is that light housekeeping is safe to do, but heavy lifting should be avoided to prevent increased intraocular pressure. Choice A is incorrect as the eye shield is usually worn at night to protect the eye. Choice B is incorrect as eye ointment is usually applied after eye drops to avoid washing away the ointment. Choice D is incorrect as sexual activities should be avoided until the follow-up appointment to prevent complications.

5. A client is receiving a continuous infusion of normal saline at 125 ml/hour post abdominal surgery. The client is drowsy and complaining of constant abdominal pain and a headache. Urine output is 800 ml over the past 24h with a central venous pressure of 15 mmHg. The nurse notes respiratory crackle and bounding central pulses. Vital signs: temperature 101.2°F, Heart rate 96 beats/min, Respirations 24 breaths/min, and Blood pressure 160/90 mmHg. Which interventions should the nurse implement first?

• A. Review the last administration of IV pain medication.
• B. Administer a PRN dose of acetaminophen.
• C. Decrease IV fluids to keep the vein open (KVO) rate.
• D. Calculate total intake and output.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease IV fluids to the keep vein open (KVO) rate. The client is showing signs of fluid volume excess, such as drowsiness, headache, elevated CVP, crackles, bounding pulses, and increased blood pressure. Decreasing the IV fluids will help prevent further fluid overload. Reviewing the last administration of IV pain medication (Choice A) may be necessary but addressing the fluid balance issue is the priority. Administering a PRN dose of acetaminophen (Choice B) may help with the headache but does not address the underlying fluid overload. Calculating total intake and output (Choice D) is important but does not directly address the immediate issue of fluid overload and its associated symptoms.

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