HESI LPN
Medical Surgical HESI
1. After a CT scan with intravenous contrast medium, a client returns to the room complaining of shortness of breath and itching. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Call respiratory therapy to administer a breathing treatment.
- B. Send for an emergency tracheostomy set.
- C. Prepare a dose of epinephrine.
- D. Review the client's complete list of allergies.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Preparing a dose of epinephrine is the correct intervention in this situation as the client is displaying symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction to the contrast medium used during the CT scan. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis due to its ability to reverse the symptoms rapidly. Calling respiratory therapy for a breathing treatment (Choice A) may not address the underlying allergic reaction and delay appropriate treatment. Sending for an emergency tracheostomy set (Choice B) is not indicated as the client's symptoms suggest an allergic reaction rather than airway obstruction. Reviewing the client's complete list of allergies (Choice D) is important but would not provide immediate relief for the client's current symptoms; administering epinephrine takes precedence in this situation.
2. A teenage girl has been placed in a brace for the treatment of scoliosis, the most common skeletal deformity of adolescence. The family asks what they can do to be more supportive. What suggestion from the nurse is the most appropriate?
- A. Enrolling her in a health club
- B. Taking her to the mall in a wheelchair
- C. Purchasing clothes to disguise the brace
- D. Spending a majority of their time with her
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate suggestion from the nurse is to recommend purchasing clothes to disguise the brace. Adolescents with scoliosis often have body image concerns and wish to fit in with their peers. By providing clothes that help conceal the brace, the family can support the teenage girl's emotional well-being. Choices A, B, and D do not directly address the adolescent's concerns about body image and fitting in, making them less appropriate in this situation.
3. The nurse caring for a hospitalized older client with a left hip fracture as a result of a fall at home notices different assessment findings. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Pain rated 7/10 on the pain scale.
- B. Mild swelling at the fracture site.
- C. Small amount of bleeding from the surgical site.
- D. Left extremity capillary refill greater than 5 seconds.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A left extremity capillary refill greater than 5 seconds indicates poor blood flow to the extremity, which is a sign of compromised circulation. This finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse to prevent complications such as tissue damage or necrosis. Choices A, B, and C are important assessments but do not indicate an immediate need for intervention like the delayed capillary refill in choice D.
4. A client is receiving intravenous potassium chloride for hypokalemia. Which action should the nurse take to prevent complications during the infusion?
- A. Administer the infusion rapidly
- B. Monitor the infusion site for signs of infiltration
- C. Use a syringe pump for the infusion
- D. Flush the IV line with normal saline before starting the infusion
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action to prevent complications during the infusion of potassium chloride is to monitor the infusion site for signs of infiltration. Rapid administration can lead to adverse effects, including cardiac arrhythmias. Using a syringe pump is not typically necessary for this infusion. Flushing the IV line with normal saline is a good practice but not directly related to preventing complications specifically during the infusion of potassium chloride.
5. A client with rheumatoid arthritis has elevated serum rheumatoid factor. Which interpretation of this finding should the nurse make?
- A. Evidence of spread of the disease to the kidney.
- B. Confirmation of the autoimmune disease process.
- C. Representative of a decline in the client's condition.
- D. Indication of the onset of joint degeneration.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct interpretation of elevated serum rheumatoid factor in a client with rheumatoid arthritis is confirmation of the autoimmune disease process. Rheumatoid factor is a marker for autoimmune activity, thus confirming the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Choice A is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor does not specifically indicate spread of the disease to the kidney. Choice C is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor does not always represent a decline in the client's condition. Choice D is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor is not an indication of the onset of joint degeneration, but rather points towards autoimmune activity.
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