Nursing Elites

1. An older male client tells the nurse that he is losing sleep because he has to get up several times at night to go to the bathroom, that he has trouble starting his urinary stream, and that he does not feel like his bladder is ever completely empty. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Collect a urine specimen for culture analysis
• B. Review the client's fluid intake prior to bedtime
• C. Palpate the bladder above the symphysis pubis
• D. Obtain a fingerstick glucose level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Palpating the bladder above the symphysis pubis is the most appropriate intervention in this scenario. It helps assess for urinary retention, which is a common issue in older males presenting with symptoms like difficulty starting urinary stream and feeling of incomplete bladder emptying. Collecting a urine specimen for culture analysis (Choice A) may be necessary in other situations like suspected urinary tract infection. Reviewing the client's fluid intake (Choice B) is important but does not directly address the current issue of urinary retention. Obtaining a fingerstick glucose level (Choice D) is not relevant to the client's urinary symptoms.

2. Following a bout of diarrhea, which foods should be offered to the school-age child?

• A. Apricots and peaches
• B. Chocolate milk
• C. Applesauce and milk
• D. Bananas and rice

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After rehydration, it is important to offer foods that are nonirritating to the bowel to the child. Bananas and rice are considered the best options as they are least likely to irritate the gastrointestinal tract. Apricots, peaches, and applesauce are fruits that may cause GI irritation, while milk, including chocolate milk, can also be irritating to the bowel. Therefore, the optimal choice for a child recovering from diarrhea would be bananas and rice.

3. An adolescent female asks the nurse about taking retinoic acid (Accutane). What guidance should be provided by the nurse?

• A. The medication should be used for 10 weeks only.
• B. The medication requires that sexually active females use contraception.
• C. The medication lowers hemoglobin levels very quickly.
• D. The medication has few side effects.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct guidance the nurse should provide is that sexually active females must use contraception while taking Accutane and for 1 month after the 20 weeks it is prescribed. Choice A is incorrect because Accutane is typically taken for a longer duration than 10 weeks. Choice C is incorrect because Accutane does not lower hemoglobin levels quickly. Choice D is incorrect as Accutane is known for having many side effects, including the risk of birth defects.

4. During a home visit, the nurse assesses the skin of a client with eczema who reports that an exacerbation of symptoms has occurred during the last week. Which information is most useful in determining the possible cause of the symptoms?

• A. An old friend with eczema came for a visit.
• B. Recently received an influenza immunization.
• C. A grandson and his new dog recently visited.
• D. Corticosteroid cream was applied to eczema.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Contact with the grandson's new dog could have introduced new allergens or irritants, exacerbating the eczema symptoms. Choice A is unrelated to the exacerbation of symptoms. Choice B, receiving an influenza immunization, is unlikely to directly cause an exacerbation of eczema symptoms. Choice D, applying corticosteroid cream, is a common treatment for eczema and would not likely be the cause of the exacerbation.

5. While performing a skin assessment on an older adult, the nurse notices a number of irregular round brownish-colored lesions on the client’s hands, arms, and face. On palpation, they are flat and slightly rough to the touch. Based on this assessment finding, which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Apply a topical antibiotic ointment.
• B. Monitor the lesions for changes.
• C. Advise the client to use sunscreen.
• D. Refer the client for a skin lesion biopsy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Referral for a skin biopsy is necessary to rule out potential malignancy of irregular skin lesions. Applying a topical antibiotic ointment (Choice A) is not indicated for irregular pigmented lesions. Monitoring the lesions for changes (Choice B) may delay appropriate intervention if malignancy is present. Advising the client to use sunscreen (Choice C) is important for sun protection but is not the priority when irregular lesions are present.

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