HESI LPN
Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI Quizlet
1. Ten hours following thrombolysis for an ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), a client is receiving a lidocaine infusion for isolated runs of ventricular tachycardia. Which finding should the nurse document in the EMR as a therapeutic response to the lidocaine infusion?
- A. Stabilization of BP ranges
- B. Cessation of chest pain
- C. Reduced heart rate
- D. Decreased frequency of episodes of VT
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Decreased frequency of ventricular tachycardia (VT) episodes indicates that the lidocaine infusion is effectively managing the ventricular tachycardia. Stabilization of BP ranges (choice A) may not directly correlate with the therapeutic response to lidocaine for VT. Cessation of chest pain (choice B) may indicate pain relief but does not specifically address the effectiveness of lidocaine for VT. Reduced heart rate (choice C) is not a direct indicator of the response to lidocaine for managing VT.
2. A client with rheumatoid arthritis has elevated serum rheumatoid factor. Which interpretation of this finding should the nurse make?
- A. Evidence of spread of the disease to the kidney.
- B. Confirmation of the autoimmune disease process.
- C. Representative of a decline in the client's condition.
- D. Indication of the onset of joint degeneration.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct interpretation of elevated serum rheumatoid factor in a client with rheumatoid arthritis is confirmation of the autoimmune disease process. Rheumatoid factor is a marker for autoimmune activity, thus confirming the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Choice A is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor does not specifically indicate spread of the disease to the kidney. Choice C is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor does not always represent a decline in the client's condition. Choice D is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor is not an indication of the onset of joint degeneration, but rather points towards autoimmune activity.
3. Following a bout of diarrhea, which foods should be offered to the school-age child?
- A. Apricots and peaches
- B. Chocolate milk
- C. Applesauce and milk
- D. Bananas and rice
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After rehydration, it is important to offer foods that are nonirritating to the bowel to the child. Bananas and rice are considered the best options as they are least likely to irritate the gastrointestinal tract. Apricots, peaches, and applesauce are fruits that may cause GI irritation, while milk, including chocolate milk, can also be irritating to the bowel. Therefore, the optimal choice for a child recovering from diarrhea would be bananas and rice.
4. The nurse empties the nasogastric suction collection canister of a client who had a bowel resection the previous day and notes that 1,000 mL of gastric secretions were collected in the last 4 hours. The nurse should assess the client for symptoms of which related problem?
- A. Respiratory acidosis.
- B. Metabolic alkalosis.
- C. Hypoglycemia.
- D. Hyperkalemia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Metabolic alkalosis. Loss of gastric secretions can lead to metabolic alkalosis due to the loss of hydrochloric acid. This can result in an increase in blood pH levels. Respiratory acidosis (choice A) is caused by retention of carbon dioxide, not related to the loss of gastric secretions. Hypoglycemia (choice C) is a low blood sugar level and is not directly related to the loss of gastric secretions. Hyperkalemia (choice D) is an elevated potassium level in the blood and is not typically associated with the loss of gastric secretions.
5. A client with partial-thickness burns to the lower extremities is scheduled for whirlpool therapy to debride the burned area. Which intervention should the nurse implement before transporting the client to the physical therapy department?
- A. Apply a sterile dressing to the wound.
- B. Administer an analgesic.
- C. Encourage the client to drink fluids.
- D. Ensure the client's nutritional needs are met.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering an analgesic before whirlpool therapy is the priority intervention in this scenario. Whirlpool therapy for debridement can be painful for the client with partial-thickness burns. Administering an analgesic before the procedure helps manage pain during the debridement process, ensuring the client's comfort. Applying a sterile dressing (Choice A) may be necessary after the whirlpool therapy but is not the immediate pre-transport intervention. Encouraging the client to drink fluids (Choice C) and ensuring nutritional needs are met (Choice D) are important aspects of care but are not specifically related to preparing the client for whirlpool therapy.
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