HESI LPN
Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI Quizlet
1. Ten hours following thrombolysis for an ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), a client is receiving a lidocaine infusion for isolated runs of ventricular tachycardia. Which finding should the nurse document in the EMR as a therapeutic response to the lidocaine infusion?
- A. Stabilization of BP ranges
- B. Cessation of chest pain
- C. Reduced heart rate
- D. Decreased frequency of episodes of VT
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Decreased frequency of ventricular tachycardia (VT) episodes indicates that the lidocaine infusion is effectively managing the ventricular tachycardia. Stabilization of BP ranges (choice A) may not directly correlate with the therapeutic response to lidocaine for VT. Cessation of chest pain (choice B) may indicate pain relief but does not specifically address the effectiveness of lidocaine for VT. Reduced heart rate (choice C) is not a direct indicator of the response to lidocaine for managing VT.
2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presented with shortness of breath. Oxygen therapy was started at 2 liters/minute via nasal cannula. The arterial blood gases (ABGs) after treatment were pH 7.36, PaO2 52, PaCO2 59, HCO3 33. Which statement describes the most likely cause of the simultaneous increase in both PaO2 and PaCO2?
- A. The client is hyperventilating due to anxiety.
- B. The hypoxic drive was reduced by the oxygen therapy.
- C. The client is experiencing respiratory alkalosis.
- D. The client is experiencing metabolic acidosis.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Oxygen therapy can reduce the hypoxic drive in COPD patients, leading to increased PaCO2 levels while improving oxygenation (PaO2). In this case, the increase in PaO2 and PaCO2 is due to the reduction of the hypoxic drive by the supplemental oxygen. Choice A is incorrect because hyperventilation would lead to decreased PaCO2. Choice C is incorrect as the ABG values do not indicate respiratory alkalosis. Choice D is incorrect as the ABG values do not support metabolic acidosis.
3. The health care provider is treating a child with meningitis with a course of antibiotic therapy. When should the nurse expect the child to be out of isolation?
- A. When the course of antibiotics is complete
- B. When a negative CNS culture is obtained
- C. When the antibiotics have been initiated for 24 hours
- D. When the child has no symptoms of the disease
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a child with bacterial meningitis should be isolated for at least 24 hours until antibiotic therapy has been initiated. This period allows the antibiotics to start working against the infection, reducing the risk of spreading it to others. Choice A is incorrect because isolation is not solely based on completing the course of antibiotics; the initiation is crucial. Choice B is incorrect as waiting for a negative CNS culture may take longer and delay necessary precautions. Choice D is incorrect as symptom resolution does not guarantee the eradication of the infection and may still pose a risk of transmission.
4. The nurse is obtaining a client's fingerstick glucose level. After gently milking the client's finger, the nurse observes that the distal tip of the finger appears reddened and engorged. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Collect the blood sample
- B. Assess radial pulse volume
- C. Apply pressure to the site
- D. Select another finger
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When the nurse observes that the distal tip of the client's finger is reddened and engorged after milking, it indicates adequate blood flow. At this point, the appropriate action is to collect the blood sample for glucose level testing. Assessing radial pulse volume (Choice B) is unrelated to the situation and not necessary. Applying pressure to the site (Choice C) may disrupt the blood sample collection process. Selecting another finger (Choice D) is not warranted as the engorgement indicates sufficient blood flow for sampling.
5. The nurse prepares a teaching plan for an adult client with metabolic syndrome. Which findings should the nurse address to help the client reduce the risk for diabetes mellitus and vascular disease? (Select all that apply)
- A. Abdominal obesity
- B. Blood pressure of 150/96 mmHg
- C. Increased triglyceride levels
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, as all the listed factors - abdominal obesity, high blood pressure, and increased triglyceride levels - are components of metabolic syndrome. Addressing these findings is crucial to help reduce the client's risk for developing diabetes mellitus and vascular disease. Abdominal obesity is a key feature of metabolic syndrome, high blood pressure (150/96 mmHg) is a risk factor, and increased triglyceride levels are also indicative of the syndrome. Educating the client on lifestyle modifications, such as healthy eating habits, regular physical activity, and monitoring these parameters, is essential in managing metabolic syndrome and preventing associated complications. Choices A, B, and C are all correct, making choice D the correct answer.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access