Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted to the emergency department with symptoms of arm numbness, chest pain, and nausea/vomiting. The examining healthcare provider believes that the client has experienced an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) within the past three hours and would like to initiate tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) therapy. Which client history findings contraindicate the use of tPA?

• A. Treats hypoglycemia with an oral hypoglycemic agent.
• B. Had a cerebrovascular hemorrhage 2 months ago.
• C. Current age 65, father died of MI at 55.
• D. Report of being intolerant of medication that contains aspirin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A history of cerebrovascular hemorrhage is a contraindication for tPA therapy due to the risk of bleeding. Choice A is incorrect because treating hypoglycemia with an oral hypoglycemic agent is not a contraindication for tPA therapy. Choice C is incorrect as age and family history of MI do not contraindicate the use of tPA. Choice D is incorrect as being intolerant of medication containing aspirin is not a contraindication for tPA therapy.

2. What is a priority action for the nurse when caring for a client with suspected meningitis?

• A. Isolate the client in a private room
• B. Administer intravenous antibiotics
• C. Obtain a throat culture
• D. Perform a chest x-ray

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering intravenous antibiotics is the priority when caring for a client with suspected meningitis. The prompt administration of antibiotics is crucial to treat bacterial meningitis and prevent potential complications. Isolating the client in a private room may be necessary to prevent the spread of infection, but antibiotic administration takes precedence. Obtaining a throat culture and performing a chest x-ray are important diagnostic measures, but they do not address the immediate need for antibiotic therapy in suspected bacterial meningitis.

3. To assess the quality of an adult client’s pain, what approach should the nurse use?

• A. Ask the client to rate the pain on a scale of 1 to 10.
• B. Ask the client to describe the pain.
• C. Observe the client’s nonverbal cues.
• D. Determine the client’s pain tolerance.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct approach for assessing the quality of an adult client's pain is to ask the client to describe the pain. By doing so, the nurse gains valuable information about the quality, location, and nature of the pain directly from the client. This approach allows for a more comprehensive understanding of the pain experience. Choice A, asking the client to rate the pain on a scale of 1 to 10, focuses more on intensity rather than quality. Choice C, observing the client's nonverbal cues, can provide additional information but may not fully capture the client's subjective experience of pain. Choice D, determining the client's pain tolerance, is not directly related to assessing the quality of pain but rather to how much pain a client can endure.

4. A client admitted with left-sided heart failure has a heart rate of 110 beats per minute and is becoming increasingly dyspneic. Which additional assessment finding by the nurse supports the client’s admitting diagnosis?

• A. Jugular vein distention.
• B. Crackles in the lung bases.
• C. Peripheral edema.
• D. Bounding peripheral pulses.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Crackles in the lung bases. Crackles in the lung bases are indicative of pulmonary congestion, which is a classic sign of left-sided heart failure. Left-sided heart failure leads to a backup of blood into the lungs, causing fluid leakage into the alveoli and resulting in crackles upon auscultation. Choices A, C, and D are less specific to left-sided heart failure. Jugular vein distention can be seen in right-sided heart failure, peripheral edema can be seen in both right and left-sided heart failure, and bounding peripheral pulses are more indicative of conditions like hyperthyroidism or anemia rather than specifically supporting left-sided heart failure.

5. Which is a long-term complication of cleft lip and palate?

• A. Cognitive impairment
• B. Altered growth and development
• C. Faulty dentition
• D. Physical abilities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Faulty dentition.' The older child with cleft lip and palate may experience psychological difficulties due to the cosmetic appearance of the defect, issues with impaired speech, and faulty dentition. This can lead to problems with dental alignment, crowding, missing or malformed teeth, and other dental issues. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as cognitive impairment, altered growth and development, and physical abilities are not typically considered long-term complications of cleft lip and palate.

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