Nursing Elites

1. An adolescent female asks the nurse about taking retinoic acid (Accutane). What guidance should be provided by the nurse?

• A. The medication should be used for 10 weeks only.
• B. The medication requires that sexually active females use contraception.
• C. The medication lowers hemoglobin levels very quickly.
• D. The medication has few side effects.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct guidance the nurse should provide is that sexually active females must use contraception while taking Accutane and for 1 month after the 20 weeks it is prescribed. Choice A is incorrect because Accutane is typically taken for a longer duration than 10 weeks. Choice C is incorrect because Accutane does not lower hemoglobin levels quickly. Choice D is incorrect as Accutane is known for having many side effects, including the risk of birth defects.

2. In planning care for a postoperative client with hypovolemic shock, which problem is most important to include in the plan of care?

• A. Risk for infection.
• B. Risk for falls.
• C. Impaired skin integrity.
• D. Activity intolerance.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Risk for falls. In a postoperative client with hypovolemic shock, the most crucial problem to address is the risk for falls. Hypovolemic shock can result in dizziness and weakness, making the client prone to falling. Preventing falls is essential to avoid further injury or complications. Choices A, C, and D are not the top priority in this scenario. While infection, impaired skin integrity, and activity intolerance are important concerns, preventing falls takes precedence due to the immediate risk of injury associated with hypovolemic shock.

3. A young female client with 7 children is having frequent morning headaches, dizziness, and blurred vision. Her BP is 168/104. The client reports that her husband recently lost his job and she is not sleeping well. After administering a STAT dose of an antihypertensive IV med, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Measure urine output hourly to assess for renal perfusion
• B. Request a prescription for pain medication
• C. Use an automated BP machine to monitor for hypotension
• D. Provide a quiet environment with low lighting

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Using an automated BP machine is crucial to continuously monitor for hypotension after administering an antihypertensive medication. This is essential to prevent a rapid drop in blood pressure that could lead to complications. Measuring urine output hourly to assess for renal perfusion is important but not the most immediate concern in this situation. Requesting pain medication is not relevant to the primary issue of managing blood pressure. Providing a quiet environment with low lighting may be beneficial for the client's overall well-being but is not as critical as monitoring for potential hypotension.

4. Based on this strip, what is the correct interpretation of this rhythm?

• A. Atrial fibrillation.
• B. Premature atrial fibrillation.
• C. AV block.
• D. Ventricular tachycardia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct interpretation of the rhythm strip is atrial fibrillation. This arrhythmia is characterized by an irregular heartbeat and the absence of distinct P waves. Choice B, premature atrial fibrillation, is incorrect as there is no indication of premature beats in the strip. Choice C, AV block, is also incorrect as there is no evidence of conduction delays between the atria and ventricles. Choice D, ventricular tachycardia, is not supported by the absence of wide QRS complexes typically seen in this arrhythmia.

5. A male client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) and Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia has a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter. The client asks the nurse why he keeps getting these massive infections. Which pathophysiologic mechanism should the nurse describe in response to the client's question?

• A. Bone marrow suppression of white blood cells causes insufficient cells to phagocytize organisms.
• B. Exposure to multiple environmental infectious agents overburdens the immune system until it fails.
• C. The humoral immune response lacks B cells that form antibodies and opportunistic infections result.
• D. Inadequate numbers of T lymphocytes are available to initiate cellular immunity and macrophages.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: With a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter, the client's immune system is severely compromised, leading to opportunistic infections.

Similar Questions