HESI LPN
Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI
1. An adolescent female asks the nurse about taking retinoic acid (Accutane). What guidance should be provided by the nurse?
- A. The medication should be used for 10 weeks only.
- B. The medication requires that sexually active females use contraception.
- C. The medication lowers hemoglobin levels very quickly.
- D. The medication has few side effects.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct guidance the nurse should provide is that sexually active females must use contraception while taking Accutane and for 1 month after the 20 weeks it is prescribed. Choice A is incorrect because Accutane is typically taken for a longer duration than 10 weeks. Choice C is incorrect because Accutane does not lower hemoglobin levels quickly. Choice D is incorrect as Accutane is known for having many side effects, including the risk of birth defects.
2. The nurse reports that a client is at risk for a brain attack (stroke) based on which assessment finding?
- A. Nuchal rigidity
- B. Carotid bruit
- C. Jugular vein distention
- D. Palpable cervical lymph node
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Carotid bruit. A carotid bruit is a significant risk factor for stroke as it indicates turbulent blood flow due to narrowing of the carotid artery. Nuchal rigidity is associated with meningitis, jugular vein distention can be a sign of heart failure, and palpable cervical lymph nodes may indicate infection, but they are not directly linked to stroke risk.
3. A postoperative client reports incisional pain. The client has two prescriptions for PRN analgesia that accompanied the client from the post-anesthesia unit. Before selecting which medication to administer, which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Document the client's report of pain in the electronic medical record.
- B. Determine which prescription will have the quickest onset of action.
- C. Compare the client's pain scale rating with the prescribed dosing.
- D. Ask the client to choose which medication is needed for the pain.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should implement before selecting which medication to administer to a postoperative client who reports incisional pain is to compare the client's pain scale rating with the prescribed dosing. This ensures that the client receives the appropriate medication based on their pain level. Documenting the client's report of pain in the electronic medical record (Choice A) is important but should come after ensuring the right medication is given. Determining which prescription will have the quickest onset of action (Choice B) may not be the most relevant factor to consider when choosing the appropriate medication. Asking the client to choose the medication needed for the pain (Choice D) may not be appropriate as the nurse should rely on the pain scale rating and prescribed dosing to make a clinical decision.
4. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is experiencing nausea and vomiting. What is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?
- A. Stop taking insulin until feeling better
- B. Increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration
- C. Consume high-carbohydrate foods only
- D. Check blood glucose levels frequently
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to check blood glucose levels frequently. During illness, such as nausea and vomiting, managing blood glucose levels is crucial in clients with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Monitoring blood glucose levels frequently helps in adjusting insulin doses appropriately, preventing complications like hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Choice A is incorrect because stopping insulin abruptly can lead to serious complications. Choice B is important but not the most critical in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect as high-carbohydrate foods may further affect blood glucose levels negatively.
5. The parents of a child who has been diagnosed with sickle cell anemia ask why their child experiences pain. What is the most likely cause of the pain?
- A. Inflammation of the vessels
- B. Obstructed blood flow
- C. Overhydration
- D. Stress-related headaches
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Obstructed blood flow. In sickle cell anemia, the sickle-shaped red blood cells can clump together, obstructing blood flow in the vessels. This obstruction leads to tissue hypoxia (lack of oxygen) and necrosis, causing pain. Choice A, inflammation of the vessels, is not the primary cause of pain in sickle cell anemia. Choice C, overhydration, is unrelated to the pathophysiology of sickle cell anemia. Choice D, stress-related headaches, is not a characteristic symptom of sickle cell anemia.
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