Nursing Elites

1. An adolescent female asks the nurse about taking retinoic acid (Accutane). What guidance should be provided by the nurse?

• A. The medication should be used for 10 weeks only.
• B. The medication requires that sexually active females use contraception.
• C. The medication lowers hemoglobin levels very quickly.
• D. The medication has few side effects.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct guidance the nurse should provide is that sexually active females must use contraception while taking Accutane and for 1 month after the 20 weeks it is prescribed. Choice A is incorrect because Accutane is typically taken for a longer duration than 10 weeks. Choice C is incorrect because Accutane does not lower hemoglobin levels quickly. Choice D is incorrect as Accutane is known for having many side effects, including the risk of birth defects.

2. A woman with chronic osteoarthritis is complaining of knee pain. Which pathophysiological process is contributing to her pain?

• A. Inflammation of the synovial membrane.
• B. Degeneration of the cartilage in the joint.
• C. Joint inflammation occurs when chondrocyte injury destroys joint cartilage, producing osteophytes.
• D. Formation of uric acid crystals in the joint space.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In osteoarthritis, the breakdown of cartilage in the joints leads to chondrocyte injury, which results in the destruction of joint cartilage and the production of osteophytes. This process causes joint inflammation and pain. Choice A is incorrect because osteoarthritis primarily involves the articular cartilage rather than the synovial membrane. Choice B is incorrect as it describes the degeneration of cartilage but does not explain the specific pathophysiological process contributing to pain in osteoarthritis. Choice D is incorrect as the formation of uric acid crystals is characteristic of gout, not osteoarthritis.

3. What should be included in the medical management of sickle cell crisis?

• A. Information for the parents including home care
• B. Provisions for adequate hydration and pain management
• C. Pain management and administration of iron supplements
• D. Adequate oxygenation and factor VIII

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Provisions for adequate hydration and pain management. In managing a sickle cell crisis, it is essential to provide adequate hydration to prevent further sickling of red blood cells and ensure proper pain management to alleviate the severe pain associated with the crisis. While information for parents and home care may be important aspects of overall care, they are not specific to the immediate medical management of a sickle cell crisis. Administration of iron supplements is not recommended during a sickle cell crisis as it can potentially worsen the condition by promoting the production of more sickled red blood cells. Adequate oxygenation is crucial in sickle cell disease, but factor VIII is not typically part of the management of a sickle cell crisis.

4. What is the most critical initial intervention for a client who is actively seizing?

• A. Restrain the client to prevent injury
• B. Insert an oral airway
• C. Turn the client to the side
• D. Apply soft restraints to the wrists

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most critical initial intervention for a client who is actively seizing is to turn the client to the side. This action helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration during a seizure. Restrain the client to prevent injury (Choice A) is incorrect because restraining a client during a seizure can lead to injury. Inserting an oral airway (Choice B) is not recommended as it can cause injury and is not necessary during an active seizure. Applying soft restraints to the wrists (Choice D) is also not recommended as it can lead to harm and does not address the immediate airway management needed during a seizure.

5. A male client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) and Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia has a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter. The client asks the nurse why he keeps getting these massive infections. Which pathophysiologic mechanism should the nurse describe in response to the client's question?

• A. Bone marrow suppression of white blood cells causes insufficient cells to phagocytize organisms.
• B. Exposure to multiple environmental infectious agents overburdens the immune system until it fails.
• C. The humoral immune response lacks B cells that form antibodies and opportunistic infections result.
• D. Inadequate numbers of T lymphocytes are available to initiate cellular immunity and macrophages.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: With a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter, the client's immune system is severely compromised, leading to opportunistic infections.

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