HESI LPN
Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI
1. An adolescent female asks the nurse about taking retinoic acid (Accutane). What guidance should be provided by the nurse?
- A. The medication should be used for 10 weeks only.
- B. The medication requires that sexually active females use contraception.
- C. The medication lowers hemoglobin levels very quickly.
- D. The medication has few side effects.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct guidance the nurse should provide is that sexually active females must use contraception while taking Accutane and for 1 month after the 20 weeks it is prescribed. Choice A is incorrect because Accutane is typically taken for a longer duration than 10 weeks. Choice C is incorrect because Accutane does not lower hemoglobin levels quickly. Choice D is incorrect as Accutane is known for having many side effects, including the risk of birth defects.
2. What pathophysiologic process is producing the symptoms of gout in a client with sudden onset of big toe joint pain and swelling?
- A. Deposition of crystals in the synovial space of the joints produces inflammation and irritation.
- B. Degeneration of joint cartilage causing inflammation.
- C. Infection of the joint space leading to inflammation.
- D. Increased synovial fluid causing joint swelling and pain.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Gout is characterized by the deposition of uric acid crystals in the synovial fluid of joints, which triggers inflammation and pain. This process is known as crystal-induced arthritis. Choice B is incorrect as gout does not involve degeneration of joint cartilage. Choice C is incorrect as gout is not caused by an infection of the joint space. Choice D is incorrect as gout does not result from increased synovial fluid but rather from the deposition of uric acid crystals.
3. What should be included in the medical management of sickle cell crisis?
- A. Information for the parents including home care
- B. Provisions for adequate hydration and pain management
- C. Pain management and administration of iron supplements
- D. Adequate oxygenation and factor VIII
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Provisions for adequate hydration and pain management. In managing a sickle cell crisis, it is essential to provide adequate hydration to prevent further sickling of red blood cells and ensure proper pain management to alleviate the severe pain associated with the crisis. While information for parents and home care may be important aspects of overall care, they are not specific to the immediate medical management of a sickle cell crisis. Administration of iron supplements is not recommended during a sickle cell crisis as it can potentially worsen the condition by promoting the production of more sickled red blood cells. Adequate oxygenation is crucial in sickle cell disease, but factor VIII is not typically part of the management of a sickle cell crisis.
4. While assessing a client with degenerative joint disease, the nurse observes Heberden's nodes, large prominences on the client's fingers that are reddened. The client reports that the nodes are painful. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Review the client's dietary intake of high protein foods
- B. Notify the healthcare provider of the finding immediately
- C. Discuss approaches to chronic pain control with the client
- D. Assess the client's radial pulses and capillary refill time
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Discussing approaches to chronic pain control is the most appropriate action in this situation as it helps the client manage the chronic pain associated with Heberden's nodes. Reviewing the client's dietary intake of high protein foods (Choice A) is not directly related to managing the pain caused by Heberden's nodes. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (Choice B) may not be necessary unless there are urgent complications. Assessing the client's radial pulses and capillary refill time (Choice D) is important but not the priority in addressing the client's reported pain and the presence of Heberden's nodes.
5. A young adult male is admitted to the intensive care unit with multiple rib fractures and severe pulmonary contusions after falling 20 feet from a rooftop. The Chest X-ray suggests acute Respiratory distress Syndrome. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the Nurse?
- A. Apical pulse 58 bpm.
- B. Core body temperature 100.8°F.
- C. Tachypnea with dyspnea.
- D. Multiple bruises over the chest area.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a patient with multiple rib fractures, severe pulmonary contusions, and possible acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS), tachypnea (rapid breathing) with dyspnea (shortness of breath) is a critical sign of respiratory distress that warrants immediate intervention by the nurse. Tachypnea and dyspnea indicate inadequate oxygenation and ventilation, which can lead to respiratory failure if not addressed promptly. The other options, such as apical pulse rate, core body temperature, and bruises over the chest area, are important assessments but do not directly indicate the immediate need for intervention in a patient with respiratory distress.
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