HESI LPN
Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI
1. An adolescent female asks the nurse about taking retinoic acid (Accutane). What guidance should be provided by the nurse?
- A. The medication should be used for 10 weeks only.
- B. The medication requires that sexually active females use contraception.
- C. The medication lowers hemoglobin levels very quickly.
- D. The medication has few side effects.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct guidance the nurse should provide is that sexually active females must use contraception while taking Accutane and for 1 month after the 20 weeks it is prescribed. Choice A is incorrect because Accutane is typically taken for a longer duration than 10 weeks. Choice C is incorrect because Accutane does not lower hemoglobin levels quickly. Choice D is incorrect as Accutane is known for having many side effects, including the risk of birth defects.
2. While assisting a female client to the toilet, the client begins to have a seizure, and the nurse eases her to the floor. The nurse calls for help and monitors the client until the seizing stops. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Document details of the seizure activity.
- B. Observe for lacerations on the tongue.
- C. Observe for prolonged periods of apnea.
- D. Evaluate for evidence of incontinence.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Documenting details of the seizure activity is the priority intervention as it is crucial for medical records and future care planning. This documentation can provide vital information for healthcare providers in understanding the type, duration, and characteristics of the seizure. Observing for lacerations on the tongue, prolonged periods of apnea, or evidence of incontinence are important assessments, but they come after documenting the seizure activity.
3. An older adult with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) was recently admitted to the hospital with heart failure (HF). Which actions should the nurse take in providing care? (Select all that apply)
- A. Monitor electrolyte levels.
- B. Maintain pulse oximetry.
- C. Provide assistance with mobility.
- D. All of the Above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a patient with COPD and HF, monitoring electrolyte levels is essential due to potential imbalances caused by medications or fluid shifts. Maintaining pulse oximetry is crucial to assess oxygenation status in COPD and HF. Providing assistance with mobility helps prevent deconditioning and complications. Therefore, all the actions mentioned are necessary for comprehensive care in this scenario, making option D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are all important aspects of managing COPD and HF, ensuring holistic and effective care.
4. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with a blood pressure of 220/120 mm Hg. What is the priority nursing action?
- A. Administer antihypertensive medication as prescribed.
- B. Place the client in a supine position.
- C. Obtain a detailed health history.
- D. Monitor urine output.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering antihypertensive medication is the priority nursing action in this situation. The extremely high blood pressure of 220/120 mm Hg puts the client at risk of severe complications such as stroke, heart attack, or kidney damage. Lowering the blood pressure promptly is crucial to prevent these complications. Placing the client in a supine position or obtaining a detailed health history are not immediate actions needed to address the hypertensive crisis. Monitoring urine output, although important, is not the priority when the client's blood pressure is critically high.
5. A client is admitted to the emergency department with symptoms of arm numbness, chest pain, and nausea/vomiting. The examining healthcare provider believes that the client has experienced an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) within the past three hours and would like to initiate tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) therapy. Which client history findings contraindicate the use of tPA?
- A. Treats hypoglycemia with an oral hypoglycemic agent.
- B. Had a cerebrovascular hemorrhage 2 months ago.
- C. Current age 65, father died of MI at 55.
- D. Report of being intolerant of medication that contains aspirin.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A history of cerebrovascular hemorrhage is a contraindication for tPA therapy due to the risk of bleeding. Choice A is incorrect because treating hypoglycemia with an oral hypoglycemic agent is not a contraindication for tPA therapy. Choice C is incorrect as age and family history of MI do not contraindicate the use of tPA. Choice D is incorrect as being intolerant of medication containing aspirin is not a contraindication for tPA therapy.
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