HESI LPN
Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI
1. An adolescent female asks the nurse about taking retinoic acid (Accutane). What guidance should be provided by the nurse?
- A. The medication should be used for 10 weeks only.
- B. The medication requires that sexually active females use contraception.
- C. The medication lowers hemoglobin levels very quickly.
- D. The medication has few side effects.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct guidance the nurse should provide is that sexually active females must use contraception while taking Accutane and for 1 month after the 20 weeks it is prescribed. Choice A is incorrect because Accutane is typically taken for a longer duration than 10 weeks. Choice C is incorrect because Accutane does not lower hemoglobin levels quickly. Choice D is incorrect as Accutane is known for having many side effects, including the risk of birth defects.
2. The nurse is assessing a client who has herpes zoster. Which question will allow the nurse to gather further information about this condition?
- A. Has everyone at home already had varicella?
- B. Have the antifungal creams been effective?
- C. Do your family members share combs and brushes?
- D. Do you have any dry patches on your feet and hands?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Has everyone at home already had varicella?' Herpes zoster (shingles) is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, the same virus that causes chickenpox. By knowing if others at home had varicella (chickenpox), the nurse can assess the risk of transmission and provide appropriate guidance. Choice B is incorrect because antifungal creams are not effective for herpes zoster, which is a viral infection. Choice C is irrelevant to herpes zoster as it pertains to sharing personal items that may transmit head lice or certain skin infections. Choice D is also unrelated as it focuses on dry patches, not typical manifestations of herpes zoster which presents as a painful rash.
3. What are the clinical manifestations of otitis media?
- A. Earache, wheezing, vomiting
- B. Coughing, rhinorrhea, headache
- C. Fever, irritability, pulling on ear
- D. Wheezing, cough, drainage in ear canal
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fever, irritability, pulling on the ear. Clinical manifestations of otitis media commonly include fever, irritability, and children may show signs of pulling or rubbing their ears. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A includes wheezing and vomiting, which are not typical symptoms of otitis media. Choice B includes coughing, rhinorrhea, and headache, which are more commonly associated with upper respiratory infections rather than otitis media. Choice D includes wheezing, cough, and drainage in the ear canal, which are not typical clinical manifestations of otitis media.
4. Parents of a 6-month-old child, who has just been diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia, ask why it was not diagnosed earlier. What would be the best response by the nurse?
- A. Are you sure your child has iron deficiency anemia?
- B. This happens when the maternal stores of iron are depleted at about 6 months.
- C. This anemia is caused by blood loss.
- D. The child may not have had it for a long time.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best response by the nurse would be choice B: 'This happens when the maternal stores of iron are depleted at about 6 months.' Iron deficiency anemia becomes apparent at about 6 months of age in a full-term infant when the maternal stores of iron are depleted. Choice A is incorrect because it questions the diagnosis provided by the healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect because iron deficiency anemia in infants is primarily due to insufficient iron intake rather than blood loss. Choice D is incorrect as iron deficiency anemia typically develops gradually due to inadequate iron intake.
5. A client who has a history of hyperthyroidism was initially admitted with lethargy and confusion. Which additional finding warrants the most immediate action by the nurse?
- A. Facial puffiness and periorbital edema
- B. Hematocrit of 30%
- C. Cold and dry skin
- D. Further decline in LOC
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A further decline in LOC can indicate severe complications and requires immediate attention. This change may signify worsening neurological status, which could lead to life-threatening consequences if not addressed promptly. Choices A, B, and C may also be concerning in a client with a history of hyperthyroidism, but a further decline in LOC takes priority due to its potential for rapid deterioration and the need for urgent intervention.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access