Nursing Elites

1. An adolescent female asks the nurse about taking retinoic acid (Accutane). What guidance should be provided by the nurse?

• A. The medication should be used for 10 weeks only.
• B. The medication requires that sexually active females use contraception.
• C. The medication lowers hemoglobin levels very quickly.
• D. The medication has few side effects.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct guidance the nurse should provide is that sexually active females must use contraception while taking Accutane and for 1 month after the 20 weeks it is prescribed. Choice A is incorrect because Accutane is typically taken for a longer duration than 10 weeks. Choice C is incorrect because Accutane does not lower hemoglobin levels quickly. Choice D is incorrect as Accutane is known for having many side effects, including the risk of birth defects.

2. A client is receiving intravenous potassium chloride for hypokalemia. Which action should the nurse take to prevent complications during the infusion?

• A. Administer the infusion rapidly
• B. Monitor the infusion site for signs of infiltration
• C. Use a syringe pump for the infusion
• D. Flush the IV line with normal saline before starting the infusion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action to prevent complications during the infusion of potassium chloride is to monitor the infusion site for signs of infiltration. Rapid administration can lead to adverse effects, including cardiac arrhythmias. Using a syringe pump is not typically necessary for this infusion. Flushing the IV line with normal saline is a good practice but not directly related to preventing complications specifically during the infusion of potassium chloride.

3. What is the most common clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta?

• A. Clubbing of the digits
• B. Upper extremity hypertension
• C. Pedal edema and portal congestion
• D. Loud systolic ejection murmur

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Upper extremity hypertension. Coarctation of the aorta leads to increased blood pressure in the upper extremities. The pressure in the arms is typically 20 mm Hg higher than in the legs. Choice A, clubbing of the digits, is not a common clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta. Choice C, pedal edema, and portal congestion are more suggestive of conditions like heart failure rather than coarctation of the aorta. Choice D, loud systolic ejection murmur, can be heard in conditions like aortic stenosis, but it is not the most common clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta.

4. Based on this strip, what is the interpretation of this rhythm?

• A. Atrial fibrillation.
• B. Ventricular tachycardia.
• C. Normal sinus rhythm.
• D. Second-degree heart block.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Normal sinus rhythm. Normal sinus rhythm is characterized by a regular rhythm, normal P waves, and a consistent PR interval. In this context, the strip likely shows a normal ECG pattern with these characteristics, indicating a healthy heart rhythm. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Atrial fibrillation would show an irregularly irregular rhythm with no discernible P waves. Ventricular tachycardia would display wide QRS complexes and a fast heart rate. Second-degree heart block would exhibit intermittent dropped QRS complexes.

5. The nurse reports that a client is at risk for a brain attack (stroke) based on which assessment finding?

• A. Nuchal rigidity
• B. Carotid bruit
• C. Jugular vein distention
• D. Palpable cervical lymph node

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Carotid bruit. A carotid bruit is a significant risk factor for stroke as it indicates turbulent blood flow due to narrowing of the carotid artery. Nuchal rigidity is associated with meningitis, jugular vein distention can be a sign of heart failure, and palpable cervical lymph nodes may indicate infection, but they are not directly linked to stroke risk.

Similar Questions