HESI LPN
Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI Quizlet
1. A client with Cushing's Syndrome is recovering from an elective laparoscopic procedure. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Irregular apical pulse
- B. Purple marks on the skin of the abdomen
- C. Quarter-sized blood spot on the dressing
- D. Pitting ankle edema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Irregular apical pulse. In a client recovering from a laparoscopic procedure with Cushing's Syndrome, an irregular apical pulse can be indicative of a life-threatening arrhythmia and requires immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are not as urgent as an irregular apical pulse. Purple marks on the skin of the abdomen may be related to Cushing's Syndrome, a quarter-sized blood spot on the dressing can be managed with appropriate wound care, and pitting ankle edema may be expected postoperatively but does not require immediate intervention.
2. The nurse is obtaining a client's fingerstick glucose level. After gently milking the client's finger, the nurse observes that the distal tip of the finger appears reddened and engorged. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Collect the blood sample
- B. Assess radial pulse volume
- C. Apply pressure to the site
- D. Select another finger
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When the nurse observes that the distal tip of the client's finger is reddened and engorged after milking, it indicates adequate blood flow. At this point, the appropriate action is to collect the blood sample for glucose level testing. Assessing radial pulse volume (Choice B) is unrelated to the situation and not necessary. Applying pressure to the site (Choice C) may disrupt the blood sample collection process. Selecting another finger (Choice D) is not warranted as the engorgement indicates sufficient blood flow for sampling.
3. Laboratory findings indicate that a client’s serum potassium level is 2.5 mEq/L. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Administer potassium supplements orally.
- B. Increase the client's dietary potassium intake.
- C. Inform the healthcare provider of the need for potassium replacement.
- D. Monitor the client's ECG continuously.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 2.5 mEq/L is critically low, indicating severe hypokalemia. In this situation, it is essential for the nurse to inform the healthcare provider promptly about the need for potassium replacement. Administering potassium supplements orally or increasing dietary potassium intake is not appropriate in cases of critically low potassium levels as immediate and precise replacement is necessary. Monitoring the client's ECG continuously is important in severe cases of hypokalemia, but the priority action should be to inform the healthcare provider for further management and treatment.
4. A male client tells the nurse that he is experiencing burning on urination, and assessment reveals that he had sexual intercourse four days ago with a woman he casually met. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Observe the perineal area for a chancroid-like lesion.
- B. Obtain a specimen of urethral drainage for culture.
- C. Assess for perineal itching, erythema, and excoriation.
- D. Identify all sexual partners in the last four days.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to obtain a specimen of urethral drainage for culture. This procedure can help diagnose the cause of burning on urination, which could be indicative of a sexually transmitted infection. Option A, observing for a chancroid-like lesion, may not be the most immediate or relevant action in this case. Option C, assessing for perineal itching, erythema, and excoriation, is important but obtaining a culture specimen would provide more specific diagnostic information. Option D, identifying all sexual partners, is relevant for contact tracing but obtaining a culture specimen is the priority to determine the current infection status.
5. Based on this strip, what is the correct interpretation of this rhythm?
- A. Atrial fibrillation.
- B. Premature atrial fibrillation.
- C. AV block.
- D. Ventricular tachycardia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct interpretation of the rhythm strip is atrial fibrillation. This arrhythmia is characterized by an irregular heartbeat and the absence of distinct P waves. Choice B, premature atrial fibrillation, is incorrect as there is no indication of premature beats in the strip. Choice C, AV block, is also incorrect as there is no evidence of conduction delays between the atria and ventricles. Choice D, ventricular tachycardia, is not supported by the absence of wide QRS complexes typically seen in this arrhythmia.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access