Nursing Elites

1. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the heparin?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Prothrombin time (PT)
• D. International normalized ratio (INR)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). This test is used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. A complete blood count (CBC) (choice A) is not specific for monitoring heparin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) (choice C) and International normalized ratio (INR) (choice D) are more commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin.

2. What is the most common method of attempted suicide?

• A. Hanging
• B. Drug overdose
• C. Gunshot
• D. Slashing the wrists

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Drug overdose is the most common method of attempted suicide. While hanging, gunshot, and slashing the wrists are also methods used in suicide attempts, statistics show that drug overdose is the most prevalent method chosen by individuals attempting suicide. Hanging, gunshot, and slashing the wrists are indeed common methods as well, but drug overdose ranks highest in terms of frequency.

3. A client with a spinal cord injury at the level of T1 is at risk for autonomic dysreflexia. Which symptom is indicative of this condition?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Severe headache
• D. Flushed skin below the level of injury

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a condition commonly seen in clients with spinal cord injuries at T6 or above. It is characterized by a sudden onset of severe hypertension, pounding headache, profuse sweating, nasal congestion, and flushing of the skin above the level of injury. The severe headache is a key symptom resulting from uncontrolled hypertension. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as autonomic dysreflexia typically presents with hypertension, not hypotension, tachycardia, or flushed skin below the level of injury.

4. What assessment findings should lead the nurse to suspect Down syndrome in a newborn?

• A. Hypertonia and dark skin
• B. Low-set ears and a simian crease
• C. Inner epicanthal folds and a high, domed forehead
• D. Long, thin fingers and excessive hair

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Low-set ears and a simian crease.' These are key physical characteristics commonly seen in newborns with Down syndrome. Low-set ears, along with a simian crease (a single palmar crease), are indicative of Down syndrome. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hypertonia, dark skin, inner epicanthal folds, a high, domed forehead, long, thin fingers, and excessive hair are not specific features associated with Down syndrome in newborns. Therefore, the presence of low-set ears and a simian crease should raise suspicion for Down syndrome and prompt further evaluation.

5. Which is a long-term complication of cleft lip and palate?

• A. Cognitive impairment
• B. Altered growth and development
• C. Faulty dentition
• D. Physical abilities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Faulty dentition.' The older child with cleft lip and palate may experience psychological difficulties due to the cosmetic appearance of the defect, issues with impaired speech, and faulty dentition. This can lead to problems with dental alignment, crowding, missing or malformed teeth, and other dental issues. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as cognitive impairment, altered growth and development, and physical abilities are not typically considered long-term complications of cleft lip and palate.

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