Nursing Elites

1. A woman with chronic osteoarthritis is complaining of knee pain. Which pathophysiological process is contributing to her pain?

• A. Inflammation of the synovial membrane.
• B. Degeneration of the cartilage in the joint.
• C. Joint inflammation occurs when chondrocyte injury destroys joint cartilage, producing osteophytes.
• D. Formation of uric acid crystals in the joint space.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In osteoarthritis, the breakdown of cartilage in the joints leads to chondrocyte injury, which results in the destruction of joint cartilage and the production of osteophytes. This process causes joint inflammation and pain. Choice A is incorrect because osteoarthritis primarily involves the articular cartilage rather than the synovial membrane. Choice B is incorrect as it describes the degeneration of cartilage but does not explain the specific pathophysiological process contributing to pain in osteoarthritis. Choice D is incorrect as the formation of uric acid crystals is characteristic of gout, not osteoarthritis.

2. To assess the quality of an adult client’s pain, what approach should the nurse use?

• A. Ask the client to rate the pain on a scale of 1 to 10.
• B. Ask the client to describe the pain.
• C. Observe the client’s nonverbal cues.
• D. Determine the client’s pain tolerance.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct approach for assessing the quality of an adult client's pain is to ask the client to describe the pain. By doing so, the nurse gains valuable information about the quality, location, and nature of the pain directly from the client. This approach allows for a more comprehensive understanding of the pain experience. Choice A, asking the client to rate the pain on a scale of 1 to 10, focuses more on intensity rather than quality. Choice C, observing the client's nonverbal cues, can provide additional information but may not fully capture the client's subjective experience of pain. Choice D, determining the client's pain tolerance, is not directly related to assessing the quality of pain but rather to how much pain a client can endure.

3. A client admitted to a surgical unit is being evaluated for an intestinal obstruction. The HCP prescribes an NG tube to be inserted and placed on intermittent low wall suction. Which intervention should the nurse implement to facilitate proper tube placement?

• A. Soak the NG tube in warm water
• B. Insert the tube with the client's head tilted back
• C. Apply suction while inserting the tube
• D. Elevate the head of the bed 60 to 90 degrees

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed 60 to 90 degrees is the correct intervention to facilitate proper placement of the NG tube. This position helps to use gravity to guide the tube smoothly into the gastrointestinal tract. Soaking the NG tube in warm water (Choice A) is not necessary for proper placement. Inserting the tube with the client's head tilted back (Choice B) can cause discomfort and may lead to improper placement. Applying suction while inserting the tube (Choice C) is not recommended as it can cause trauma to the nasal passages and esophagus.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy at 2 liters per minute via a nasal cannula. Which assessment finding indicates a potential complication of oxygen therapy?

• A. Increased respiratory rate
• B. Decreased level of consciousness
• C. Improved oxygen saturation
• D. Complaints of dry mouth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients with COPD, oxygen therapy can lead to a decrease in the respiratory drive caused by the removal of the hypoxic drive. This can result in carbon dioxide retention, leading to a decreased level of consciousness. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because an increased respiratory rate is typically a sign of hypoxia, improved oxygen saturation is a positive response to oxygen therapy, and complaints of dry mouth are not directly related to oxygen therapy complications in this scenario.

5. The nurse assesses an adult male client 24 hours following abdominal surgery and finds that his blood pressure is 98/40 mm Hg, he is tachycardic, restless, and irritable. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the findings.
• B. Ensure that the IV is infusing at the prescribed rate.
• C. Listen to lung sounds.
• D. Check under his back for evidence of bleeding.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should first check under the client for evidence of bleeding. A blood pressure of 98/40 mm Hg, along with tachycardia, restlessness, and irritability, could indicate internal hemorrhage following abdominal surgery. Checking for bleeding under the back is crucial to rule out this life-threatening complication. Notifying the healthcare provider, ensuring IV infusion, or listening to lung sounds can be important but are secondary to ruling out immediate life-threatening conditions like internal bleeding.

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