Nursing Elites

1. A woman with chronic osteoarthritis is complaining of knee pain. Which pathophysiological process is contributing to her pain?

• A. Inflammation of the synovial membrane.
• B. Degeneration of the cartilage in the joint.
• C. Joint inflammation occurs when chondrocyte injury destroys joint cartilage, producing osteophytes.
• D. Formation of uric acid crystals in the joint space.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In osteoarthritis, the breakdown of cartilage in the joints leads to chondrocyte injury, which results in the destruction of joint cartilage and the production of osteophytes. This process causes joint inflammation and pain. Choice A is incorrect because osteoarthritis primarily involves the articular cartilage rather than the synovial membrane. Choice B is incorrect as it describes the degeneration of cartilage but does not explain the specific pathophysiological process contributing to pain in osteoarthritis. Choice D is incorrect as the formation of uric acid crystals is characteristic of gout, not osteoarthritis.

2. The nurse caring for a hospitalized older client with a left hip fracture as a result of a fall at home notices different assessment findings. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Pain rated 7/10 on the pain scale.
• B. Mild swelling at the fracture site.
• C. Small amount of bleeding from the surgical site.
• D. Left extremity capillary refill greater than 5 seconds.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A left extremity capillary refill greater than 5 seconds indicates poor blood flow to the extremity, which is a sign of compromised circulation. This finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse to prevent complications such as tissue damage or necrosis. Choices A, B, and C are important assessments but do not indicate an immediate need for intervention like the delayed capillary refill in choice D.

3. Based on this strip, what is the interpretation of this rhythm?

• A. Atrial fibrillation.
• B. Ventricular tachycardia.
• C. Normal sinus rhythm.
• D. Second-degree heart block.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Normal sinus rhythm. Normal sinus rhythm is characterized by a regular rhythm, normal P waves, and a consistent PR interval. In this context, the strip likely shows a normal ECG pattern with these characteristics, indicating a healthy heart rhythm. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Atrial fibrillation would show an irregularly irregular rhythm with no discernible P waves. Ventricular tachycardia would display wide QRS complexes and a fast heart rate. Second-degree heart block would exhibit intermittent dropped QRS complexes.

4. To assess the quality of an adult client’s pain, what approach should the nurse use?

• A. Ask the client to rate the pain on a scale of 1 to 10.
• B. Ask the client to describe the pain.
• C. Observe the client’s nonverbal cues.
• D. Determine the client’s pain tolerance.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct approach for assessing the quality of an adult client's pain is to ask the client to describe the pain. By doing so, the nurse gains valuable information about the quality, location, and nature of the pain directly from the client. This approach allows for a more comprehensive understanding of the pain experience. Choice A, asking the client to rate the pain on a scale of 1 to 10, focuses more on intensity rather than quality. Choice C, observing the client's nonverbal cues, can provide additional information but may not fully capture the client's subjective experience of pain. Choice D, determining the client's pain tolerance, is not directly related to assessing the quality of pain but rather to how much pain a client can endure.

5. The nurse is reviewing blood pressure readings for a group of clients on a medical unit. Which client is at the highest risk for complications related to hypertension?

• A. Post-menopausal Caucasian female who overeats and is 20% above her ideal body weight.
• B. Young adult Hispanic female who has hemoglobin at 11 g/dl (110 g/L) and drinks beer daily.
• C. Older adult who consumes a diet of smoked, cured, and pickled foods.
• D. Middle-aged African-American male who has a serum creatinine level of 2.9 mg/dL (256.4 micromol/L).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An elevated serum creatinine level indicates kidney damage, which significantly increases the risk of complications from hypertension. High blood pressure can damage the kidneys over time, leading to impaired kidney function. Choices A, B, and C do not directly correlate with increased risk of complications related to hypertension. Choice A focuses on obesity and overeating, Choice B on anemia and alcohol consumption, and Choice C on a diet high in sodium and nitrates, none of which are as directly related to hypertension complications as kidney damage.

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