HESI LPN
Medical Surgical HESI 2023
1. In planning nursing care for a bedfast client, which factor is most likely to contribute to the development of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in an immobile client?
- A. Atherosclerotic plaque formation.
- B. Stasis of blood flow.
- C. Endothelial damage.
- D. Atherosclerotic vessel changes.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stasis of blood flow. Stasis of blood flow in immobile clients increases the risk of DVT, as lack of movement can cause blood to pool and clot. Atherosclerotic plaque formation (choice A) and atherosclerotic vessel changes (choice D) are more related to arterial diseases rather than DVT. Endothelial damage (choice C) can contribute to the development of DVT, but in an immobile client, stasis of blood flow is the most significant factor.
2. An adult client who received partial-thickness and full-thickness burns over 40% of the body in a house fire is admitted to the inpatient burn unit.
- A. Normal Saline
- B. Lactated Ringer’s
- C. 5% Dextrose in water
- D. 0.45% Sodium Chloride
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In burn patients, Lactated Ringer's solution is preferred over other options as it helps in restoring fluid and electrolyte balance effectively. Lactated Ringer's contains electrolytes (sodium, potassium, calcium) that closely mimic the body's natural composition, making it a suitable choice for fluid resuscitation in burn injuries. Normal Saline (Choice A) lacks electrolytes like potassium and calcium, which are essential in burn management. 5% Dextrose in water (Choice C) is a hypotonic solution and is not the ideal choice for fluid resuscitation in burn patients. 0.45% Sodium Chloride (Choice D) is a hypotonic solution mainly used for conditions requiring free water replacement rather than volume expansion needed in burn injuries.
3. A woman with chronic osteoarthritis is complaining of knee pain. Which pathophysiological process is contributing to her pain?
- A. Inflammation of the synovial membrane.
- B. Degeneration of the cartilage in the joint.
- C. Joint inflammation occurs when chondrocyte injury destroys joint cartilage, producing osteophytes.
- D. Formation of uric acid crystals in the joint space.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. In osteoarthritis, the breakdown of cartilage in the joints leads to chondrocyte injury, which results in the destruction of joint cartilage and the production of osteophytes. This process causes joint inflammation and pain. Choice A is incorrect because osteoarthritis primarily involves the articular cartilage rather than the synovial membrane. Choice B is incorrect as it describes the degeneration of cartilage but does not explain the specific pathophysiological process contributing to pain in osteoarthritis. Choice D is incorrect as the formation of uric acid crystals is characteristic of gout, not osteoarthritis.
4. A client is receiving a continuous infusion of normal saline at 125 ml/hour post abdominal surgery. The client is drowsy and complaining of constant abdominal pain and a headache. Urine output is 800 ml over the past 24h with a central venous pressure of 15 mmHg. The nurse notes respiratory crackle and bounding central pulses. Vital signs: temperature 101.2°F, Heart rate 96 beats/min, Respirations 24 breaths/min, and Blood pressure 160/90 mmHg. Which interventions should the nurse implement first?
- A. Review the last administration of IV pain medication.
- B. Administer a PRN dose of acetaminophen.
- C. Decrease IV fluids to keep the vein open (KVO) rate.
- D. Calculate total intake and output.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease IV fluids to the keep vein open (KVO) rate. The client is showing signs of fluid volume excess, such as drowsiness, headache, elevated CVP, crackles, bounding pulses, and increased blood pressure. Decreasing the IV fluids will help prevent further fluid overload. Reviewing the last administration of IV pain medication (Choice A) may be necessary but addressing the fluid balance issue is the priority. Administering a PRN dose of acetaminophen (Choice B) may help with the headache but does not address the underlying fluid overload. Calculating total intake and output (Choice D) is important but does not directly address the immediate issue of fluid overload and its associated symptoms.
5. A client with AIDS has impaired gas exchange from a respiratory infection. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Elevated temperature
- B. Generalized weakness
- C. Diminished lung sounds
- D. Pain when swallowing
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client with AIDS and impaired gas exchange from a respiratory infection, pain when swallowing can indicate esophageal involvement, such as esophagitis or an esophageal infection like candidiasis. These conditions can significantly impact the client's ability to take in nutrition and medications, leading to complications like dehydration and malnutrition. Therefore, immediate intervention is required to address the underlying cause and prevent further complications. Elevated temperature (choice A) may indicate infection but does not directly address the impaired gas exchange. Generalized weakness (choice B) and diminished lung sounds (choice C) are concerning but do not directly relate to the immediate need for intervention in the context of esophageal involvement in a client with impaired gas exchange.
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