HESI LPN
Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI Quizlet
1. Following surgical repair of the bladder, a female client is being discharged from the hospital to home with an indwelling urinary catheter. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide to this client?
- A. Avoid coiling the tubing and keep it free of kinks.
- B. Cleanse the perineal area with soap and water twice daily.
- C. Keep the drainage bag lower than the level of the bladder.
- D. Drink 1,000 ml of fluids daily to irrigate the catheter.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most crucial instruction for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter post-bladder surgery is to keep the drainage bag positioned lower than the level of the bladder. This positioning prevents backflow of urine into the bladder, reducing the risk of infection. Choice A, avoiding coiling the tubing and keeping it free of kinks, is important to maintain proper flow but not as critical as ensuring the drainage bag is lower than the bladder. Choice B, cleansing the perineal area, is essential for overall hygiene but not directly related to catheter care instructions. Choice D, drinking fluids to irrigate the catheter, is not recommended as it may increase the risk of infection and should be guided by healthcare providers based on specific needs.
2. A male client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) and Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia has a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter. The client asks the nurse why he keeps getting these massive infections. Which pathophysiologic mechanism should the nurse describe in response to the client's question?
- A. Bone marrow suppression of white blood cells causes insufficient cells to phagocytize organisms.
- B. Exposure to multiple environmental infectious agents overburdens the immune system until it fails.
- C. The humoral immune response lacks B cells that form antibodies and opportunistic infections result.
- D. Inadequate numbers of T lymphocytes are available to initiate cellular immunity and macrophages.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: With a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter, the client's immune system is severely compromised, leading to opportunistic infections.
3. What should the nurse assess in an infant who has been diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis?
- A. A history of diarrhea following each feeding
- B. Gastric pain evidenced by vigorous crying
- C. Poor appetite due to a poor sucking reflex
- D. An olive-shaped mass right of the midline
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. In hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, a key assessment finding is an olive-shaped mass in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen, to the right of the midline. This mass is palpable and represents the hypertrophied pyloric muscle. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because although they may be present in infants with feeding problems, the definitive assessment for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is the presence of an olive-shaped mass on the right side of the abdomen, not a history of diarrhea, gastric pain, or poor appetite.
4. What are priority nursing interventions designed to do for a 4-year-old child with cerebral palsy?
- A. Assist with referral to specialized education.
- B. Support the child with independent toileting.
- C. Assist the child to develop effective communication.
- D. Encourage the child to ambulate independently.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Assist the child to develop effective communication.' Children with cerebral palsy often face challenges with communication skills. Therefore, priority nursing interventions aim to help them improve their communication abilities. Choice A is incorrect because while education is important, the priority for a child with cerebral palsy is to address immediate needs. Choice B is incorrect as toileting, although important, is not the priority in this case. Choice D is incorrect as ambulation may not be feasible or the most critical concern for a child with cerebral palsy.
5. A client who was discharged 8 months ago with cirrhosis and ascites is admitted with anorexia and recent hemoptysis. The client is drowsy but responds to verbal stimuli. The nurse programs a blood pressure monitor to take readings every 15 minutes. Which assessment should the nurse implement first?
- A. Evaluate distal capillary refill for delayed perfusion
- B. Check the extremities for bruising and petechiae
- C. Examine the peritibial regions for pitting edema
- D. Palpate the abdomen for tenderness and rigidity
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client with a history of cirrhosis and ascites presenting with anorexia and recent hemoptysis, palpating the abdomen for tenderness and rigidity is crucial as it helps in identifying signs of complications related to these conditions. Assessing for abdominal tenderness and rigidity can provide valuable information about the presence of internal bleeding, ascites complications, or liver enlargement. Evaluating distal capillary refill, checking for bruising and petechiae, or examining peritibial regions for pitting edema are important assessments but are not the priority in this case, given the client's history and current symptoms.
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