Nursing Elites

1. During the admission interview, an older client answers some questions inappropriately. The nurse notes that a hearing aid is in one ear. Which intervention is most helpful in assisting the client to hear the nurse’s question?

• A. Move to the client's other side.
• B. Speak louder into the client's ear with the hearing aid.
• C. Ask the client to adjust the hearing aid volume.
• D. Restate questions articulating consonants carefully.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Restating questions with clear articulation is the most helpful intervention in assisting the client to hear the nurse's question. This approach ensures that the client can better understand the question, especially if there are issues with the hearing aid. Moving to the client's other side or speaking louder into the ear with the hearing aid may not effectively address the problem of clarity in communication. Asking the client to adjust the hearing aid volume assumes that the issue lies solely with the volume, while restating questions with clear articulation can help overcome various hearing difficulties.

2. Which statement correctly explains the etiology of Down syndrome?

• A. There is an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.
• B. There is a missing chromosome on the 21st pair.
• C. There are two pairs of the 21st chromosome.
• D. The 21st chromosome pair is missing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'There is an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.' Down syndrome is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21, known as trisomy 21. This additional genetic material leads to the characteristics associated with Down syndrome. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Down syndrome is not due to a missing chromosome or having two pairs of the 21st chromosome; it results from the presence of an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.

3. A client who experienced partial-thickness burns with over 50% body surface area (BSA) 2 weeks ago suddenly becomes restless and agitated.

• A. Increase the room temperature.
• B. Assess the oxygen saturation.
• C. Continue to monitor vital signs.
• D. Notify the rapid response team.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a burn patient with sudden restlessness and agitation, it is crucial to consider hypoxia or other critical conditions. As such, notifying the rapid response team is the most appropriate action to ensure prompt assessment and intervention. Increasing room temperature (Choice A) is not the priority in this scenario. While monitoring vital signs (Choice C) is important, the sudden change in behavior warrants immediate action. Assessing oxygen saturation (Choice B) is a step in the right direction, but involving the rapid response team ensures a comprehensive evaluation and timely management of the patient's condition.

4. What could suddenly occur in a child with acute epiglottitis?

• A. Increased carbon dioxide levels
• B. Airway obstruction
• C. Inability to swallow
• D. Bronchial collapse

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In acute epiglottitis, the infected epiglottis becomes inflamed and can lead to sudden airway obstruction, which is a life-threatening emergency. This can cause difficulty breathing and necessitates immediate intervention to secure the airway. Increased carbon dioxide levels may occur due to inadequate ventilation resulting from airway obstruction, but the primary concern is the obstruction itself, not the carbon dioxide levels. Inability to swallow may be present due to pain and swelling in the throat but is not the immediate life-threatening complication associated with acute epiglottitis. Bronchial collapse is not a typical consequence of acute epiglottitis.

5. Ten hours following thrombolysis for an ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), a client is receiving a lidocaine infusion for isolated runs of ventricular tachycardia. Which finding should the nurse document in the EMR as a therapeutic response to the lidocaine infusion?

• A. Stabilization of BP ranges
• B. Cessation of chest pain
• C. Reduced heart rate
• D. Decreased frequency of episodes of VT

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Decreased frequency of ventricular tachycardia (VT) episodes indicates that the lidocaine infusion is effectively managing the ventricular tachycardia. Stabilization of BP ranges (choice A) may not directly correlate with the therapeutic response to lidocaine for VT. Cessation of chest pain (choice B) may indicate pain relief but does not specifically address the effectiveness of lidocaine for VT. Reduced heart rate (choice C) is not a direct indicator of the response to lidocaine for managing VT.

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