Nursing Elites

1. The mother of a child with acute laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB) asks why her child must be kept NPO. Which response would be the most correct?

• A. The epinephrine given causes nausea and vomiting.
• B. The child is being hydrated with IV fluids.
• C. The child is not hungry.
• D. The child's rapid respirations pose a risk for aspiration.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because rapid respirations predispose to aspiration in a child with acute laryngotracheobronchitis. Choice A is incorrect because epinephrine does not directly relate to the need for NPO status. Choice B is incorrect as hydration with IV fluids is not the primary reason for keeping the child NPO. Choice C is incorrect as the child being hungry is not the main concern when keeping a child NPO in this situation.

2. A client with AIDS has impaired gas exchange from a respiratory infection. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Elevated temperature
• B. Generalized weakness
• C. Diminished lung sounds
• D. Pain when swallowing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with AIDS and impaired gas exchange from a respiratory infection, pain when swallowing can indicate esophageal involvement, such as esophagitis or an esophageal infection like candidiasis. These conditions can significantly impact the client's ability to take in nutrition and medications, leading to complications like dehydration and malnutrition. Therefore, immediate intervention is required to address the underlying cause and prevent further complications. Elevated temperature (choice A) may indicate infection but does not directly address the impaired gas exchange. Generalized weakness (choice B) and diminished lung sounds (choice C) are concerning but do not directly relate to the immediate need for intervention in the context of esophageal involvement in a client with impaired gas exchange.

3. In the change of shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?

• A. Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.
• B. Intact skin with non-blanchable redness.
• C. Full-thickness tissue loss with visible fat.
• D. Full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.' Stage 2 pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss and typically appear as shallow open ulcers with a red-pink wound bed. Choice B describes a stage 1 ulcer, where the skin is intact but shows non-blanchable redness. Choice C describes a stage 3 ulcer, with full-thickness tissue loss exposing fat. Choice D is characteristic of a stage 4 ulcer, where there is full-thickness tissue loss exposing bone, tendon, or muscle. Therefore, option A best fits the description of a stage 2 pressure ulcer.

4. The nurse is completing the preoperative assessment of a client who is scheduled for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy under general anesthesia. Which finding warrants notification of the HCP prior to proceeding with the scheduled procedure?

• A. Light yellow coloring of the client's skin and eyes.
• B. The client's blood pressure reading of 184/88 mm Hg.
• C. The client vomits 20 ml of clear yellowish fluid.
• D. The IV insertion site is red, swollen, and leaking IV fluid.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A blood pressure reading of 184/88 mm Hg indicates hypertension, which can increase the risks associated with surgery. The healthcare provider should be notified to manage the blood pressure before proceeding with the scheduled procedure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: A, light yellow coloring of the client's skin and eyes may indicate jaundice, but it is not an immediate concern for the scheduled procedure; C, vomiting clear yellowish fluid may suggest bile reflux, but it does not pose an immediate risk to the procedure; D, red, swollen, and leaking IV insertion site indicates a local complication that requires intervention but does not have a direct impact on proceeding with the scheduled surgery.

5. On the first postoperative day, the nurse finds an older male client disoriented and trying to climb over the bed railing. Previously, he was oriented to person, place, and time on admission. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer a sedative.
• B. Determine the client’s blood pressure.
• C. Apply soft restraints.
• D. Call for assistance.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention the nurse should implement first is to determine the client’s blood pressure. Assessing the blood pressure is crucial in this situation to rule out physiological causes like hypotension leading to the client's disorientation. Administering a sedative (Choice A) without understanding the underlying cause may worsen the situation. Applying soft restraints (Choice C) should not be the initial action and can be considered later if necessary. Calling for assistance (Choice D) may be needed eventually, but assessing the client's blood pressure takes precedence to address the immediate concern.

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