Nursing Elites

1. A new mother asks the clinic nurse if she must continue giving her baby nystatin for thrush since the white lesions on his tongue have disappeared. What response by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. No. When the lesions have disappeared, you may stop the nystatin.
• B. Yes. You should continue it for the full 7 days.
• C. No. Thrush is a self-limiting disorder, and nystatin is given for complete treatment.
• D. Yes. The medication should be refilled for a second week of therapy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because nystatin should be given for the full 7 days even if the lesions are no longer present. Continuing the treatment for the prescribed duration ensures complete eradication of the fungal infection. Choice A is incorrect as stopping the medication prematurely may lead to the reoccurrence of thrush. Choice C is inaccurate as nystatin is not just for comfort but for effective treatment. Choice D is incorrect as refilling the medication for a second week without medical advice may lead to unnecessary prolonged use and potential side effects.

2. The nurse is recording a history for a child who has been diagnosed with recurrent abdominal pain (RAP). What is a finding that is characteristic of this disorder?

• A. Morning headaches
• B. Pain for 3 consecutive months
• C. Febrile episodes in the late afternoon
• D. Diaphoresis when attacks occur

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pain for 3 consecutive months. Recurrent abdominal pain (RAP) is characterized by abdominal pain that occurs at least once per week for at least 2 months before diagnosis. Choosing option A is incorrect since morning headaches are not a common characteristic of RAP. Option C is incorrect because febrile episodes in the late afternoon are not typically associated with RAP. Option D is incorrect as diaphoresis (excessive sweating) when attacks occur is not a common finding in RAP.

3. What is the most common clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta?

• A. Clubbing of the digits
• B. Upper extremity hypertension
• C. Pedal edema and portal congestion
• D. Loud systolic ejection murmur

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Upper extremity hypertension. Coarctation of the aorta leads to increased blood pressure in the upper extremities. The pressure in the arms is typically 20 mm Hg higher than in the legs. Choice A, clubbing of the digits, is not a common clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta. Choice C, pedal edema, and portal congestion are more suggestive of conditions like heart failure rather than coarctation of the aorta. Choice D, loud systolic ejection murmur, can be heard in conditions like aortic stenosis, but it is not the most common clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta.

4. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed sucralfate. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

• A. Neutralizes stomach acid
• B. Decreases gastric acid secretion
• C. Covers the ulcer site and protects it from acid
• D. Improves gastric motility

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Covers the ulcer site and protects it from acid. Sucralfate works by forming a protective barrier over ulcers, shielding them from stomach acid and promoting healing. Choice A, neutralizing stomach acid, is incorrect as sucralfate does not neutralize acid but acts as a physical barrier. Choice B, decreasing gastric acid secretion, is not the mechanism of action of sucralfate. Choice D, improving gastric motility, is unrelated to sucralfate's action on peptic ulcers.

5. Ten hours following thrombolysis for an ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), a client is receiving a lidocaine infusion for isolated runs of ventricular tachycardia. Which finding should the nurse document in the EMR as a therapeutic response to the lidocaine infusion?

• A. Stabilization of BP ranges
• B. Cessation of chest pain
• C. Reduced heart rate
• D. Decreased frequency of episodes of VT

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Decreased frequency of ventricular tachycardia (VT) episodes indicates that the lidocaine infusion is effectively managing the ventricular tachycardia. Stabilization of BP ranges (choice A) may not directly correlate with the therapeutic response to lidocaine for VT. Cessation of chest pain (choice B) may indicate pain relief but does not specifically address the effectiveness of lidocaine for VT. Reduced heart rate (choice C) is not a direct indicator of the response to lidocaine for managing VT.

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