Nursing Elites

1. A doctor orders 1 gram of a medication to be administered intravenously. The available vial contains 200 milligrams per milliliter. How many milliliters of the solution should be drawn up?

• A. 4 milliliters
• B. 5 milliliters
• C. 10 milliliters
• D. 20 milliliters

Correct answer: B

Rationale: 1 gram is equivalent to 1000 milligrams. The concentration of the medication is 200 milligrams per milliliter. To calculate the volume needed, divide the total amount of medication by the concentration: 1000 mg / 200 mg/mL = 5 mL. Therefore, 5 milliliters of the solution should be drawn up to administer 1 gram of the medication intravenously. Choice A (4 milliliters), Choice C (10 milliliters), and Choice D (20 milliliters) are incorrect because they do not accurately calculate the volume of the solution needed based on the concentration of the medication.

2. A patient's temperature is 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit. What is their temperature in degrees Celsius (1°F = 5/9°C)?

• A. 37�C
• B. 32�C
• C. 41�C
• D. 45�C

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To convert Fahrenheit to Celsius, you need to subtract 32 from the Fahrenheit temperature (98.6°F) and then multiply the result by 5/9. Doing this calculation, you get 37°C. Choice B (32°C) is incorrect because it doesn't consider the conversion formula correctly. Choices C (41°C) and D (45°C) are incorrect as they do not apply the conversion formula accurately, leading to incorrect results.

3. A hospital nurse's schedule rotates every 4 days. The nurse works 3 days and has 1 day off. If the nurse's first day off is a Monday, what is the nurse's second day off?

• A. Friday
• B. Saturday
• C. Thursday
• D. Wednesday

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's schedule repeats every 4 days, with 3 days of work and 1 day off. If the first day off is Monday, then after 4 days (Monday + 4 days), the second day off will fall on Friday. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B (Saturday), C (Thursday), and D (Wednesday) are incorrect as they do not align with the 4-day rotation pattern after the first day off on Monday.

4. What is the result of dividing 40.3 by 4.8?

• A. 7.5
• B. 8.4
• C. 6.2
• D. 9.1

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To divide 40.3 by 4.8, you perform the calculation: 40.3 ÷ 4.8 ≈ 8.4. Therefore, the correct answer is 8.4. Choice A (7.5) is incorrect as it is the result of dividing 40.3 by 5.4. Choice C (6.2) is incorrect as it is the result of dividing 40.3 by 6.5. Choice D (9.1) is incorrect as it is the result of dividing 40.3 by 4.4.

5. In a bowling team consisting of 34 members, with 18 being male, if 4 females leave the team, what percent of the remaining members are male?

• A. 50%
• B. 60%
• C. 70%
• D. 55%

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After 4 females leave the team, there are 30 members remaining. Out of these, 18 are male. To find the percentage of male members, divide the number of male members (18) by the total number of remaining members (30) and multiply by 100. Percentage of male members = (18/30) * 100 = 60%. Therefore, 60% of the remaining members are male. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the information provided in the question.

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