Nursing Elites

1. A client with heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following signs of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradycardia. Digoxin toxicity often presents with bradycardia, which is a common sign of toxicity associated with this medication. Tachycardia (Choice A) is not typically seen with digoxin toxicity. Hypotension (Choice B) can occur but is less specific to digoxin toxicity. Hyperglycemia (Choice D) is not a typical sign of digoxin toxicity. Therefore, monitoring for bradycardia is crucial in clients receiving digoxin to detect toxicity early.

2. A community health action that focuses on reducing the frequency and severity of asthma in inner-city children by requiring a local incinerator to install particulate filters is an example of:

• A. downstream intervention
• B. risk management
• C. primary prevention
• D. upstream intervention

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: upstream intervention. Upstream thinking addresses the root causes of health problems to create long-term solutions. In this scenario, requiring the incinerator to install particulate filters tackles the root cause of asthma triggers, which is pollution, rather than just managing the symptoms or risks associated with asthma. Choice A, downstream intervention, would focus more on treating asthma symptoms after they have already occurred rather than preventing them. Choice B, risk management, typically involves strategies to assess, control, or mitigate risks, which may not directly address the root cause. Choice C, primary prevention, usually refers to actions taken to prevent a disease or condition before it occurs, but in this case, the action is targeting the underlying cause rather than preventing asthma itself.

3. A client with a history of alcoholism is admitted to the hospital for detoxification. The nurse knows that the client's risk for withdrawal symptoms is greatest within:

• A. 2-4 hours
• B. 4-6 hours
• C. 6-12 hours
• D. 12-24 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 12-24 hours. Withdrawal symptoms typically begin within 12-24 hours after the last drink. This period is when the client is at the highest risk for experiencing withdrawal symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the typical timeline for alcohol withdrawal symptoms to manifest. Symptoms usually peak within the first 24 to 48 hours after the last drink, making the 12-24 hour window critical for monitoring and managing any potential withdrawal complications.

4. The following are functions of the Provincial Nurse Supervisor except:

• A. interpreting policies, guidelines, and SDP to nursing and midwifery staff of the province
• B. assessing training needs and planning staff development programs for nursing and midwifery staff
• C. participating in planning, developing, and evaluating OJT for nurses and midwives conducted by the department
• D. collecting, consolidating, analyzing, and interpreting health records and reports and making recommendations as needed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Collecting, consolidating, analyzing, and interpreting health records is not a primary function of a Provincial Nurse Supervisor. The primary functions of a Provincial Nurse Supervisor include interpreting policies, guidelines, and SDP to nursing and midwifery staff, assessing training needs, planning staff development programs, and participating in planning, developing, and evaluating OJT for nurses and midwives. While health records may be accessed for specific purposes, the core responsibilities of a Provincial Nurse Supervisor focus on staff management and development rather than direct involvement in health record analysis.

5. Which topic should be included in planning a secondary prevention project for the local retirement community?

• A. Safety measures in the home.
• B. Adult immunization program.
• C. Rehabilitation after surgery.
• D. Vision and hearing screening.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In planning a secondary prevention project for the local retirement community, vision and hearing screening should be included. This is crucial as sensory impairments are common among older adults and early detection through screening can help in preventing further complications. Safety measures in the home, adult immunization programs, and rehabilitation after surgery are important but fall more under primary or tertiary prevention strategies rather than secondary prevention, which focuses on early detection and intervention to prevent the progression of health conditions.

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