Nursing Elites

1. In the provision of preventive care to workers, the nurse must be aware of biological hazards that are harmful to workers and their families, such as:

• A. bacteria, fungi, and insects
• B. noise
• C. toxic metals, poisonous gas fumes, and dust
• D. stress

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: bacteria, fungi, and insects. Biological hazards in the workplace can include microorganisms like bacteria and fungi that can cause infections, as well as insects that may carry diseases. Noise (choice B) is considered a physical hazard, not a biological one. Toxic metals, poisonous gas fumes, and dust (choice C) are examples of chemical hazards, not biological hazards. While stress (choice D) can be a health concern in the workplace, it is not classified as a biological hazard.

2. During the care of a client with Legionnaire's disease, which finding would require the nurse's immediate attention?

• A. Pleuritic pain on inspiration
• B. Dry mucus membranes in the mouth
• C. A decrease in respiratory rate from 34 to 24
• D. Decrease in chest wall expansion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A decrease in chest wall expansion suggests that the client may be experiencing a serious complication, such as worsening pneumonia or respiratory failure, requiring immediate medical attention. This finding indicates a potential decrease in lung function, which could lead to respiratory distress. Pleuritic pain on inspiration may be related to the disease process but does not indicate an immediate need for intervention. Dry mucus membranes in the mouth may require attention but are not as critical as a decrease in chest wall expansion. A decrease in respiratory rate could be concerning but is not as urgent as a decrease in chest wall expansion, which directly impacts respiratory function.

3. With an alert of an internal disaster and the need for beds, the charge nurse is asked to list clients who are potential discharges within the next hour. Which client should the charge nurse select?

• A. An elderly client who has had type 2 diabetes for over 20 years, admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis 24 hours ago
• B. An adolescent admitted the prior night with Tylenol intoxication
• C. A middle-aged client with an internal automatic defibrillator and complaints of 'passing out at unknown times' admitted yesterday
• D. A school-age child diagnosed with suspected bacterial meningitis and was admitted at the change of shifts

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) that is being well-managed and has shown improvement within 24 hours is more stable and can be considered for discharge sooner than those with more acute or unstable conditions. Choice B is incorrect as Tylenol intoxication may require further monitoring and intervention. Choice C is incorrect as a client with an automatic defibrillator and episodes of passing out needs careful evaluation and monitoring. Choice D is incorrect as suspected bacterial meningitis is a serious condition that typically requires a longer hospital stay for treatment and observation.

4. The nurse is administering the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine to a 12-month-old child during the well-baby visit. Which age range should the nurse advise the parents to plan for their child to receive the MMR booster based on the current recommendations and guidelines by the Center for Disease Control (CDC)?

• A. 13 to 18 years of age.
• B. 11 to 12 years of age.
• C. 18 to 24 months of age.
• D. 4 to 6 years of age.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4 to 6 years of age. The CDC recommends the MMR booster for children in this age group. Choice A (13 to 18 years of age) is incorrect as it is not the recommended age range for the MMR booster. Choice B (11 to 12 years of age) is also incorrect as it does not align with the CDC guidelines for the MMR booster. Choice C (18 to 24 months of age) is not the correct age range for the MMR booster according to CDC recommendations.

5. In reviewing the assessment data of a client suspected of having diabetes insipidus, the nurse expects which of the following after a water deprivation test?

• A. Increased edema and weight gain
• B. Unchanged urine specific gravity
• C. Rapid protein excretion
• D. Decreased blood potassium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a water deprivation test in a client suspected of having diabetes insipidus, the nurse would expect the urine specific gravity to remain unchanged. This occurs because in diabetes insipidus, the kidneys are unable to concentrate urine, leading to a low urine specific gravity even after water deprivation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increased edema and weight gain are not typical findings in diabetes insipidus. Rapid protein excretion is not directly related to the condition, and decreased blood potassium is not a common outcome of a water deprivation test for diabetes insipidus.

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