Nursing Elites

1. In the provision of preventive care to workers, the nurse must be aware of biological hazards that are harmful to workers and their families, such as:

• A. bacteria, fungi, and insects
• B. noise
• C. toxic metals, poisonous gas fumes, and dust
• D. stress

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: bacteria, fungi, and insects. Biological hazards in the workplace can include microorganisms like bacteria and fungi that can cause infections, as well as insects that may carry diseases. Noise (choice B) is considered a physical hazard, not a biological one. Toxic metals, poisonous gas fumes, and dust (choice C) are examples of chemical hazards, not biological hazards. While stress (choice D) can be a health concern in the workplace, it is not classified as a biological hazard.

2. What title should be given to this role in the occupational health nurse job description? A registered nurse who teaches and prepares nursing students to function as expert clinicians/practitioners, administrators, educators, researchers, or consultants at the work site.

• A. researcher
• B. case manager
• C. health educator
• D. health promotion specialist

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct title for the role described in the job description is a health educator. A health educator is responsible for teaching and preparing nursing students for various professional roles. Choice A, researcher, is incorrect because the main focus in the job description is on teaching and preparing students, not conducting research. Choice B, case manager, does not align with the role of teaching and preparing nursing students. Choice D, health promotion specialist, is also not the best fit as the primary focus in the job description is on education and preparation, rather than promoting health within a specific population.

3. Which of these tests with frequency would the nurse expect to monitor for the evaluation of clients with poor glycemic control in persons aged 18 and older?

• A. A glycosylated hemoglobin (A1c) should be performed during an initial assessment and during follow-up assessments, which should occur at no longer than 3-month intervals
• B. A glycosylated hemoglobin should be obtained at least twice a year
• C. A fasting glucose and a glycosylated hemoglobin should be obtained at 3-month intervals after the initial assessment
• D. A glucose tolerance test, a fasting glucose, and a glycosylated hemoglobin should be obtained at 6-month intervals after the initial assessment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Glycosylated hemoglobin (A1c) testing every 3 months is recommended for clients with poor glycemic control to monitor their average blood sugar levels and adjust treatment as necessary. Choice A is correct as it aligns with the guideline of performing A1c testing every 3 months. Choice B is incorrect because testing at least twice a year may not provide adequate monitoring for clients with poor glycemic control. Choice C is incorrect as it only mentions testing at 3-month intervals without specifying the importance of A1c testing. Choice D is incorrect as it includes unnecessary tests like glucose tolerance test and does not emphasize the importance of more frequent A1c monitoring for clients with poor glycemic control.

4. The nurse is teaching a group of older adults about medication safety. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?

• A. keeping a list of all medications and dosages
• B. sharing medications with family members if they have the same prescription
• C. stopping medications when symptoms improve
• D. doubling up on missed doses

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: keeping a list of all medications and dosages. Maintaining a comprehensive list of medications and their dosages is essential for older adults to prevent medication errors and dangerous interactions. Choice B is incorrect because sharing medications, even if family members have the same prescription, can lead to unintended adverse effects or inappropriate dosages. Choice C is incorrect as stopping medications when symptoms improve can be harmful if the full course of treatment is not completed. Choice D is incorrect as doubling up on missed doses can result in overdosing and adverse reactions.

5. With an alert of an internal disaster and the need for beds, the charge nurse is asked to list clients who are potential discharges within the next hour. Which client should the charge nurse select?

• A. An elderly client who has had type 2 diabetes for over 20 years, admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis 24 hours ago
• B. An adolescent admitted the prior night with Tylenol intoxication
• C. A middle-aged client with an internal automatic defibrillator and complaints of 'passing out at unknown times' admitted yesterday
• D. A school-age child diagnosed with suspected bacterial meningitis and was admitted at the change of shifts

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) that is being well-managed and has shown improvement within 24 hours is more stable and can be considered for discharge sooner than those with more acute or unstable conditions. Choice B is incorrect as Tylenol intoxication may require further monitoring and intervention. Choice C is incorrect as a client with an automatic defibrillator and episodes of passing out needs careful evaluation and monitoring. Choice D is incorrect as suspected bacterial meningitis is a serious condition that typically requires a longer hospital stay for treatment and observation.

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