in the implementation of the national family planning program the government assumes the role of a
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Community Health HESI Exam

1. In the implementation of the national family planning program, the government assumes the role of a:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'facilitator.' In the implementation of a national family planning program, the government plays a role as a facilitator, meaning it helps to support and enable the access to family planning services and information. The government's role is to ensure that services are available, accessible, and of good quality, rather than making decisions for individuals or regulating them. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the government's role is not to make decisions on behalf of individuals (decision-maker), strictly regulate family planning practices (regulator), or impose decisions without considering individual choices (dictator).

2. Health activities are designed to:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Health activities are structured to enhance communities' autonomy and influence over their health and well-being, aiming to empower them to make informed choices and take control of their health. Choice A is incorrect as health activities encompass a broader scope beyond just preventing exposure to germs. Choice B is incorrect because spiritual factors are crucial components that should not be disregarded in healthcare. Choice D is incorrect as health activities are not solely about the community health nurse being in charge, but about empowering the community as a whole.

3. The nurse is administering the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine to a 12-month-old child during the well-baby visit. Which age range should the nurse advise the parents to plan for their child to receive the MMR booster based on the current recommendations and guidelines by the CDC?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4-6 years of age. The CDC recommends administering the MMR booster to children aged 4 to 6 years. This booster dose is essential to ensure continued immunity against measles, mumps, and rubella. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the CDC guidelines for the age range of MMR booster administration.

4. The family presents several problems. Which of the following criteria is considered in determining the priority health problem?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When determining the priority health problem within a family, one key criterion to consider is the modifiability of the problem. This means assessing whether the health issue can be changed or improved through interventions. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the priority of the health problem within the family. The expected consequence of the problem, cooperation and support of the family, and involvement of family members are important factors but do not specifically address the priority of the health issue based on modifiability.

5. A client with HIV/AIDS is receiving zidovudine (Retrovir). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anemia. Zidovudine (Retrovir) can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to anemia. Monitoring for signs of anemia, such as fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath, is crucial. Choice A, Hyperglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of zidovudine. Choice C, Hypertension, is not directly associated with zidovudine use. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is also not a typical adverse effect of zidovudine.

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