at which phase of the community organizing process are the leaders or groups given training to develop their knowledge skills and attitudes in managin
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Community Health HESI Test Bank 2023

1. During which phase of the community organizing process are the leaders or groups given training to develop their knowledge, skills, and attitudes in managing their own programs?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, the organizing-building phase. This phase involves providing training to leaders and groups to develop their knowledge, skills, and attitudes in managing their own programs. Choice A, the sustenance and strengthening phase, focuses more on maintaining and enhancing existing programs rather than training. Choice B, the pre-entry phase, occurs before actual organizing and training take place. Choice D, the entry phase, is about initiating the community organizing process, not specifically about training leaders and groups.

2. When assessing a newborn infant with low set ears, short palpebral fissures, flat nasal bridge, and an indistinct philtrum, a priority maternal assessment by the nurse should be to ask about

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alcohol use during pregnancy. The physical features mentioned are indicative of fetal alcohol syndrome, a condition caused by maternal alcohol consumption during pregnancy. It is crucial for the nurse to inquire about alcohol use as it can help in diagnosing and managing the infant's condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly associated with the physical findings described in the newborn, which specifically point towards a potential history of alcohol exposure during pregnancy.

3. The nurse is evaluating the growth and development of a toddler with AIDS. The nurse would anticipate finding that the child has

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Children with AIDS often experience delays in achieving developmental milestones, affecting their overall growth and development. This delay can impact various areas of development, not limited to a specific aspect like musculoskeletal or speech development. While some children may achieve milestones at varying rates (choice A), the general trend is a delay in multiple milestones (choice D). Musculoskeletal development (choice B) and speech development (choice C) may be affected but are not as comprehensive as the delay in most developmental milestones.

4. The client with acute hypocalcemia is admitted to the unit. Nursing action should include:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for a client with acute hypocalcemia is to implement seizure precautions. Hypocalcemia can lead to tetany and seizures due to neuromuscular irritability. Assessing for hypoglycemia (choice B) is not directly related to hypocalcemia. Monitoring for visual changes (choice C) is more indicative of conditions like hyperglycemia or retinal disorders. Observing for muscle weakness (choice D) is a common symptom of hypocalcemia but does not address the immediate risk of seizures, which is why implementing seizure precautions is the priority nursing action.

5. Which of the following measures the risk of dying from causes related to pregnancy, childbirth, and puerperium?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, maternal mortality. Maternal mortality specifically measures the risk of dying from pregnancy-related causes. Neonatal death rate, fetal death rate, and infant mortality rate focus on different populations and timeframes. Neonatal death rate refers to deaths within the first 28 days of life, fetal death rate measures stillbirths, and infant mortality rate includes deaths of infants under one year of age. Therefore, A is the most appropriate measure for assessing the risk of dying from causes related to pregnancy, childbirth, and puerperium.

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