Nursing Elites

1. During which phase of the community organizing process are the leaders or groups given training to develop their knowledge, skills, and attitudes in managing their own programs?

• A. Sustenance and strengthening phase
• B. Pre-entry phase
• C. Organizing-building phase
• D. Entry phase

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, the organizing-building phase. This phase involves providing training to leaders and groups to develop their knowledge, skills, and attitudes in managing their own programs. Choice A, the sustenance and strengthening phase, focuses more on maintaining and enhancing existing programs rather than training. Choice B, the pre-entry phase, occurs before actual organizing and training take place. Choice D, the entry phase, is about initiating the community organizing process, not specifically about training leaders and groups.

2. As a client who is terminally ill has been receiving high doses of an opioid analgesic for the past month and becomes unresponsive to verbal stimuli as death approaches, what orders would the nurse expect from the healthcare provider?

• A. Decrease the analgesic dosage by half
• B. Discontinue the analgesic
• C. Continue the same analgesic dosage
• D. Prescribe a less potent drug

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Continuing the same dosage of analgesic is appropriate to manage pain effectively as death nears and the client becomes unresponsive. The primary goal of palliative care in end-of-life situations is to ensure comfort, regardless of the client's level of consciousness. Decreasing the analgesic dosage or discontinuing it could lead to inadequate pain relief, which goes against the principles of palliative care. Prescribing a less potent drug may also compromise pain management in this critical stage. Therefore, maintaining the same analgesic dosage is the most appropriate action to provide comfort and alleviate suffering.

3. What title should be given to this occupational health nurse job description? A registered nurse who establishes a provider network, recommends treatment plans that assure quality and efficacy while controlling costs, monitors outcomes, and maintains communication among all involved.

• A. manager
• B. researcher
• C. case manager
• D. health promotion specialist

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: case manager. A case manager in healthcare coordinates care, monitors outcomes, and ensures quality and cost-effectiveness. In this job description, the nurse is mainly focused on coordinating care, recommending treatment plans, monitoring outcomes, and maintaining communication among all involved, which aligns with the responsibilities of a case manager. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the job description does not primarily involve general management, research, or health promotion specialization.

4. A 23-year-old single client is in the 33rd week of her first pregnancy. She tells the nurse that she has everything ready for the baby and has made plans for the first weeks together at home. Which normal emotional reaction does the nurse recognize?

• A. Acceptance of the pregnancy
• B. Focus on fetal development
• C. Anticipation of the birth
• D. Ambivalence about pregnancy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Anticipation of the birth.' In the third trimester, it is common for expectant mothers to feel excited and prepared for the upcoming birth of their baby. This includes making plans for the baby's arrival and the early days at home. Choice A, 'Acceptance of the pregnancy,' may occur earlier in the pregnancy and does not specifically relate to the third trimester. Choice B, 'Focus on fetal development,' is more common in the earlier stages of pregnancy when the mother may be more concerned with the baby's growth and milestones. Choice D, 'Ambivalence about pregnancy,' suggests conflicting feelings which are less likely in this scenario where the client expresses readiness and plans for the baby's arrival.

5. Which of the following is an example of a modifiable risk factor for chronic diseases?

• A. Age
• B. Gender
• C. Genetic predisposition
• D. Physical inactivity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Physical inactivity is a modifiable risk factor for chronic diseases because individuals have control over their level of physical activity. By increasing physical activity, the risk of chronic diseases can be reduced. Choices A, B, and C are not modifiable risk factors: Age is a non-modifiable factor, gender is a biological characteristic, and genetic predisposition is inherent and cannot be altered.

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