HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Test Bank 2023
1. During which phase of the community organizing process are the leaders or groups given training to develop their knowledge, skills, and attitudes in managing their own programs?
- A. Sustenance and strengthening phase
- B. Pre-entry phase
- C. Organizing-building phase
- D. Entry phase
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, the organizing-building phase. This phase involves providing training to leaders and groups to develop their knowledge, skills, and attitudes in managing their own programs. Choice A, the sustenance and strengthening phase, focuses more on maintaining and enhancing existing programs rather than training. Choice B, the pre-entry phase, occurs before actual organizing and training take place. Choice D, the entry phase, is about initiating the community organizing process, not specifically about training leaders and groups.
2. The home health care agency can expect to obtain Medicare reimbursement for which home visit performed by a registered nurse or a practical nurse?
- A. assessment of the speech pattern of a mobile adult who had a mild stroke last year
- B. safety teaching for an older male client whose wife complains that he uses an unsafe ladder while painting
- C. wound care for a client who had postoperative infection following abdominal surgery two weeks ago
- D. evaluation of crutch use by a 65-year-old client who broke his tibia while snow skiing
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because wound care for a postoperative infection qualifies for Medicare reimbursement. Medicare typically covers skilled nursing care, like wound care, required due to a postoperative infection. Choices A, B, and D involve assessments, teaching, and evaluation, which may not always be eligible for Medicare reimbursement unless they are directly related to skilled nursing care for a specific medical condition.
3. When the nurse identifies what appears to be ventricular tachycardia on the cardiac monitor of a client being evaluated for possible myocardial infarction, the first action the nurse should perform is to
- A. Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation
- B. Prepare for immediate defibrillation
- C. Notify the 'Code' team and healthcare provider
- D. Assess airway, breathing, and circulation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when identifying what appears to be ventricular tachycardia in a client being evaluated for possible myocardial infarction is to assess the client's airway, breathing, and circulation. This step is crucial to determine the client's stability and the need for immediate intervention. Beginning cardiopulmonary resuscitation or preparing for immediate defibrillation without first assessing the airway, breathing, and circulation could delay potentially life-saving interventions. Notifying the 'Code' team and healthcare provider should come after ensuring the client's immediate needs are addressed.
4. The home health care agency can expect to obtain Medicare reimbursement for which home visit performed by a registered nurse (RN) or a practical nurse (PN)?
- A. Assessment of the speech pattern of a mobile adult who had a mild stroke last year.
- B. Safety teaching for an older male client whose wife complains that he uses an unsafe ladder while painting.
- C. Wound care for a client who had a postoperative infection following abdominal surgery two weeks ago.
- D. Evaluation of crutch use by a 65-year-old male client who broke his tibia while snow skiing.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because wound care for a postoperative infection is a skilled service that qualifies for Medicare reimbursement. Choices A, B, and D involve assessments, teaching, and evaluation, which may not meet the criteria for Medicare reimbursement as they do not directly involve a skilled nursing service related to a postoperative condition.
5. A client with asthma is receiving albuterol (Proventil). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?
- A. Hypoglycemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachycardia. Albuterol can cause tachycardia as a side effect due to its stimulant effect on the heart. It acts as a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, leading to increased heart rate. Hypoglycemia (choice A) is not a common side effect of albuterol. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is also not typically associated with albuterol use. Hypotension (choice D) is less likely to occur as albuterol usually causes tachycardia rather than hypotension.
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