at which phase of the community organizing process are the leaders or groups given training to develop their knowledge skills and attitudes in managin
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Community Health HESI Test Bank 2023

1. During which phase of the community organizing process are the leaders or groups given training to develop their knowledge, skills, and attitudes in managing their own programs?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, the organizing-building phase. This phase involves providing training to leaders and groups to develop their knowledge, skills, and attitudes in managing their own programs. Choice A, the sustenance and strengthening phase, focuses more on maintaining and enhancing existing programs rather than training. Choice B, the pre-entry phase, occurs before actual organizing and training take place. Choice D, the entry phase, is about initiating the community organizing process, not specifically about training leaders and groups.

2. In planning for the nursing care of the sick person in the home, the major point that the nurse must keep in mind is:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because ensuring someone is responsible for the patient is crucial for continuous care. The presence of a caregiver during the nurse's absence ensures the patient's safety and well-being. Choice B, economic level of the family, is important but not the major point when planning nursing care in the home. Choice C, the availability of the nearest hospital, is significant but doesn't address the day-to-day care in the home. Choice D, whether or not the patient is under a private physician, is relevant but not as critical as ensuring someone is available to care for the patient at all times.

3. Which of the following is an example of a modifiable risk factor for chronic diseases?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Physical inactivity is a modifiable risk factor for chronic diseases because individuals have control over their level of physical activity. By increasing physical activity, the risk of chronic diseases can be reduced. Choices A, B, and C are not modifiable risk factors: Age is a non-modifiable factor, gender is a biological characteristic, and genetic predisposition is inherent and cannot be altered.

4. The healthcare provider is evaluating the health status of a 16-year-old client with a history of Type 1 diabetes. Which laboratory test would provide the most accurate information about long-term blood glucose control?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c). Glycosylated hemoglobin provides valuable information about blood glucose control over the past 2-3 months. This test measures the average blood sugar levels during this period, offering a more comprehensive view of long-term glycemic control. Choice A, blood glucose level, reflects the blood sugar concentration at the time of testing and may fluctuate throughout the day. Choice C, urine ketones, indicates the presence of ketones and is more relevant for assessing acute complications like diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice D, serum insulin level, evaluates insulin production and is not a direct indicator of long-term blood glucose control in diabetes management.

5. A client with myasthenia gravis is receiving pyridostigmine (Mestinon). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bradycardia. Pyridostigmine, a cholinesterase inhibitor used in myasthenia gravis, can lead to bradycardia as a side effect. Choice A, constipation, is not a common side effect of pyridostigmine. Choice B, hypertension, is unlikely as pyridostigmine is more likely to cause hypotension. Choice C, muscle weakness, is actually a symptom of myasthenia gravis itself and not a side effect of pyridostigmine.

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