a female client diagnosed with genital herpes simplex virus 2 hsv 2 complains of dysuria dyspareunia leukorrhea and lesions on the labia and perianal
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Community Health HESI Questions

1. A female client diagnosed with genital herpes simplex virus 2 (HSV 2) complains of dysuria, dyspareunia, leukorrhea, and lesions on the labia and perianal skin. A primary nursing action with the focus of comfort should be to

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to suggest 3 to 4 warm sitz baths per day. Warm sitz baths can soothe the irritated genital area, reduce pain, and promote healing of the lesions associated with genital herpes. Cleansing the genitalia with soap and water or spraying warm water over the genitalia after urination may further irritate the lesions. Applying heat or cold to lesions as desired may not provide the same level of comfort and healing as warm sitz baths.

2. Mark, 9 months old, is given oral rehydration solution because of diarrhea with some dehydration. In your follow-up visit, you observed that Mark's eyes become puffy. Which one of the following would you advise Mark's mother?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, observing puffy eyes in a child being treated with oral rehydration solution may indicate fluid overload. Continuing to give ORS but more slowly is the correct course of action as it helps manage hydration without overloading fluids. Choice B is not the best option in this situation as the issue is not about the quantity of the solution, but the rate of administration. Choice C is incorrect because plain water or milk is not a suitable alternative for rehydration in cases of dehydration. Choice D is also incorrect as reassessing the patient does not directly address the issue of puffy eyes, which suggests a need to adjust the administration of ORS.

3. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following laboratory values?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prothrombin time (PT). Prothrombin time is monitored to assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, including factors II, VII, IX, and X. Monitoring the PT helps ensure that the client's blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range to prevent complications such as recurrent DVT or excessive bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because serum potassium, blood urea nitrogen, and white blood cell count are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with a history of DVT.

4. The family health care plan includes the following listed in sequence:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a family health care plan, the correct sequence should start with identifying the problems (statement of the problems), setting objectives, planning interventions, and then evaluating the outcomes. This sequence ensures a logical and structured approach to healthcare planning. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not follow the logical order of healthcare planning steps.

5. With an alert of an internal disaster and the need for beds, the charge nurse is asked to list clients who are potential discharges within the next hour. Which client should the charge nurse select?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) that is being well-managed and has shown improvement within 24 hours is more stable and can be considered for discharge sooner than those with more acute or unstable conditions. Choice B is incorrect as Tylenol intoxication may require further monitoring and intervention. Choice C is incorrect as a client with an automatic defibrillator and episodes of passing out needs careful evaluation and monitoring. Choice D is incorrect as suspected bacterial meningitis is a serious condition that typically requires a longer hospital stay for treatment and observation.

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