Nursing Elites

1. Community organizing is an important part of the community nursing function. Given the following elements: choosing an organizational structure, identifying and recruiting members, defining mission, vision, and goals, clarifying roles and responsibilities; at which stage do these elements belong?

• A. Program maintenance-consolidation
• B. Dissemination-Reassessment
• C. Community Analysis/diagnosis
• D. Design and initiation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Design and initiation. These elements such as choosing an organizational structure, identifying and recruiting members, defining mission, vision, and goals, and clarifying roles and responsibilities belong to the design and initiation stage of community organizing. This stage focuses on setting up the foundation and structure of the community organization. The other choices are incorrect because: A) Program maintenance-consolidation refers to maintaining and strengthening existing programs, not establishing new ones; B) Dissemination-Reassessment involves spreading information and evaluating programs already in place; C) Community Analysis/diagnosis is about assessing community needs and identifying issues, not about setting up the initial structure.

2. As the immediate supervisor of the Rural Health Midwives, the PHN prepares a supervisory plan. Which of the following would be the PHN's activity?

• A. performing needs assessment
• B. listing supervisory activities
• C. identifying the training needs
• D. formulating objectives for supervision

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: listing supervisory activities. When preparing a supervisory plan, the Public Health Nurse (PHN) needs to list the specific supervisory activities that need to be carried out. This helps in organizing and outlining the tasks that need to be accomplished to ensure effective supervision. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because although needs assessment, identifying training needs, and formulating objectives are important aspects of supervisory planning, they are not specifically related to the act of preparing a detailed list of supervisory activities.

3. The healthcare professional enters the room as a 3-year-old is having a generalized seizure. Which intervention should the healthcare professional do first?

• A. Clear the area of any hazards
• B. Place the child on the side
• C. Restrain the child
• D. Give the prescribed anticonvulsant

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Placing the child on the side is the priority intervention during a generalized seizure as it helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration. Clearing the area of any hazards is important but should come after ensuring the child's safety. Restraining the child is not recommended during a seizure as it can lead to injury. Giving the prescribed anticonvulsant is important but should not be the first action during an ongoing seizure.

4. A client with multiple sclerosis is receiving baclofen (Lioresal). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Muscle spasms
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Drowsiness. Baclofen, a muscle relaxant commonly used to treat conditions like multiple sclerosis, can cause drowsiness as a side effect. Monitoring for drowsiness is important to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Choice A, Hypertension, is incorrect because baclofen is not known to cause hypertension. Choice B, Muscle spasms, is not a common side effect of baclofen but rather the symptom it is used to treat. Choice D, Tachycardia, is also incorrect as baclofen is not associated with causing an increase in heart rate.

5. A 67-year-old client is admitted with substernal chest pain with radiation to the jaw. His admitting diagnosis is Acute Myocardial Infarction (MI). The priority nursing diagnosis for this client during the immediate 24 hours is

• A. Constipation related to immobility
• B. High risk for infection
• C. Impaired gas exchange
• D. Fluid volume deficit

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Impaired gas exchange. In a client with an acute myocardial infarction, impaired gas exchange is a priority nursing diagnosis due to compromised heart function, which affects oxygenated blood circulation. Close monitoring and interventions are crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: A) Constipation related to immobility is not the priority in this acute situation; B) High risk for infection is not the immediate concern related to the client's primary diagnosis; D) Fluid volume deficit, while important, is not the priority compared to addressing impaired gas exchange in acute MI.

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