an infant has just returned from surgery for placement of a gastrostomy tube as an initial treatment for tracheoesophageal fistula the mother asks whe
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Community Health HESI Study Guide

1. An infant has just returned from surgery for placement of a gastrostomy tube as an initial treatment for tracheoesophageal fistula. The mother asks, 'When can the tube be used for feeding?' The nurse's best response would be which of these comments?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The stomach contents and air must be drained first.' Before starting feedings through a gastrostomy tube, it is essential to drain the stomach contents and air. This process helps prevent complications and ensures the proper functioning of the tube after placement. Choice A is incorrect because initiating feedings within 5 to 7 days may lead to complications if the stomach is not adequately prepared. Choice B is incorrect as feeding should not begin immediately to allow for proper preparation of the tube and the stomach. Choice D is incorrect because although incision healing is important, draining the stomach contents and air is a more immediate concern to prevent complications.

2. What action is best for the community health nurse to take if the nurse suspects that an infant is being physically abused?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a community health nurse suspects that an infant is being physically abused, the best course of action is to follow agency protocols to report the suspected abuse. This is essential to ensure that the appropriate authorities are informed, and proper interventions can be initiated. Reporting suspicions to the local child abuse reporting hotline (Choice B) can be a part of the agency protocols but may not cover all necessary steps. Educating the child's caregivers about growth and development (Choice C) is not appropriate in cases of suspected abuse, as the immediate focus should be on the safety and well-being of the infant. Calling the police department to have the child removed from the home (Choice D) is not the primary role of the nurse; the proper authorities should handle the removal process after an investigation.

3. In a well-child clinic, the nurse examines many children daily. Which of the following toddlers requires further follow-up?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a 30-month-old should have developed the skill to drink from a regular cup by this age. Drinking from a sip cup at this stage may indicate a delay in development. Choices A, B, and C are not as concerning as they can be within the range of normal development. A 13-month-old not walking yet, a 20-month-old using 2 and 3 word sentences, and a 24-month-old crying during examination are all behaviors that can fall within the spectrum of typical development for their respective ages.

4. A key component of primary prevention strategies is:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: education.' Education plays a vital role in primary prevention strategies by empowering individuals with knowledge and skills to prevent the onset of diseases. Through education, people can make informed decisions about their health, adopt healthy behaviors, and engage in preventive measures. Choice A, 'aggressive interventions,' is incorrect as primary prevention focuses on proactive measures to avoid the development of diseases rather than aggressive reactive interventions. Choice B, 'detection,' is more aligned with secondary prevention, which involves early identification of diseases. Choice C, 'culture,' while important in shaping health behaviors, is not a key component specifically in primary prevention strategies.

5. The nurse is caring for an acutely ill 10-year-old client. Which of the following assessments would require the nurse's immediate attention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, slow, irregular respirations. In an acutely ill child, this assessment can indicate impending respiratory failure or neurological compromise, necessitating immediate intervention. Rapid bounding pulse (choice A) may indicate tachycardia but is not as immediately concerning as compromised respirations. A temperature of 38.5 degrees Celsius (choice B) is elevated but may not be the most urgent concern unless accompanied by other symptoms. Profuse diaphoresis (choice C) can indicate increased sympathetic activity but is not as critical as respiratory compromise.

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