Nursing Elites

1. Which of these clients would the triage nurse request the healthcare provider to examine immediately?

• A. A 5-month-old infant with audible wheezing and grunting
• B. An adolescent with soot on the face and shirt
• C. A middle-aged man with second-degree burns on the right hand
• D. A toddler with singed ends of long hair extending to the waist

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Audible wheezing and grunting in an infant indicate respiratory distress, which is a critical condition requiring immediate assessment and intervention by the healthcare provider. Choices B, C, and D do not present with immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent evaluation. Soot on the face and shirt, second-degree burns on the hand, and singed hair, while concerning, do not pose an immediate threat to life compared to respiratory distress in an infant.

2. What title should be given to this role in the occupational health nurse job description? A registered nurse who teaches and prepares nursing students to function as expert clinicians/practitioners, administrators, educators, researchers, or consultants at the work site.

• A. researcher
• B. case manager
• C. health educator
• D. health promotion specialist

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct title for the role described in the job description is a health educator. A health educator is responsible for teaching and preparing nursing students for various professional roles. Choice A, researcher, is incorrect because the main focus in the job description is on teaching and preparing students, not conducting research. Choice B, case manager, does not align with the role of teaching and preparing nursing students. Choice D, health promotion specialist, is also not the best fit as the primary focus in the job description is on education and preparation, rather than promoting health within a specific population.

3. A newborn presents with a pronounced cephalic hematoma following a birth in the posterior position. Which nursing diagnosis should guide the plan of care?

• A. Pain related to periosteal injury
• B. Impaired mobility related to bleeding
• C. Parental anxiety related to knowledge deficit
• D. Injury related to intracranial hemorrhage

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis to guide the plan of care for a newborn with a pronounced cephalic hematoma following a birth in the posterior position is 'Parental anxiety related to knowledge deficit.' This is appropriate because the parents may be worried about the appearance and potential complications of the cephalic hematoma. They may require education and reassurance from the nurse. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not address the emotional needs of the parents and the knowledge deficit they may have regarding the condition.

4. The nurse is performing a physical assessment on a client with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. Which client complaint calls for immediate nursing action?

• A. Diaphoresis and shakiness
• B. Reduced sensation in the lower leg
• C. Intense thirst and hunger
• D. Painful hematoma on thigh

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Diaphoresis and shakiness are classic signs of hypoglycemia in a client with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. Hypoglycemia is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. The nurse should address this complaint promptly by providing a fast-acting source of glucose to raise the client's blood sugar levels. Reduced sensation in the lower leg may indicate peripheral neuropathy, which is a common complication of diabetes but does not require immediate action unless there are signs of injury. Intense thirst and hunger are symptoms of hyperglycemia, which also requires intervention but not as urgently as hypoglycemia. A painful hematoma on the thigh may require assessment and management, but it is not as urgent as addressing hypoglycemia.

5. Which finding would be the most characteristic of an acute episode of reactive airway disease?

• A. Auditory gurgling
• B. Inspiratory laryngeal stridor
• C. Auditory expiratory wheezing
• D. Frequent dry coughing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auditory expiratory wheezing. Expiratory wheezing is a common sign of reactive airway disease, such as asthma, where airways are constricted, making it difficult to expel air from the lungs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with reactive airway disease. Auditory gurgling may suggest airway secretions or fluid accumulation, inspiratory laryngeal stridor indicates upper airway obstruction, and frequent dry coughing is more commonly seen in conditions like upper respiratory infections or postnasal drip.

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