a client with a history of alcoholism is admitted to the hospital for detoxification the nurse knows that the clients risk for withdrawal symptoms is
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Community Health HESI Practice Exam

1. A client with a history of alcoholism is admitted to the hospital for detoxification. The nurse knows that the client's risk for withdrawal symptoms is greatest within:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 12-24 hours. Withdrawal symptoms typically begin within 12-24 hours after the last drink. This period is when the client is at the highest risk for experiencing withdrawal symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the typical timeline for alcohol withdrawal symptoms to manifest. Symptoms usually peak within the first 24 to 48 hours after the last drink, making the 12-24 hour window critical for monitoring and managing any potential withdrawal complications.

2. Which of the following is a contribution of community health nurses to the community's health?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Community health nurses play a vital role in promoting community health by providing health education to vulnerable populations (Choice A), coordinating access to integrated care for the population (Choice B), and developing comprehensive health care systems in various settings (Choice C). These contributions work together to enhance the overall health and well-being of the community, making choice D, 'all of the above,' the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are all essential aspects of the multifaceted approach that community health nurses take to improve the health outcomes of the community.

3. A health program that aims to reduce the incidence of chronic diseases through lifestyle modifications is an example of:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Primary prevention. Primary prevention focuses on preventing the development of diseases or injuries before they occur by promoting healthy behaviors and lifestyles. In this scenario, the health program targeting lifestyle modifications to reduce chronic diseases aligns with primary prevention efforts. Choice B, secondary prevention, involves early detection and treatment to prevent the progression of disease. Choice C, tertiary prevention, focuses on managing and treating existing diseases to prevent complications. Choice D, quaternary prevention, relates to actions taken to mitigate or avoid the consequences of unnecessary or excessive interventions in healthcare.

4. The nurse should consider the following when assessing the child for chest indrawing EXCEPT:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Chest indrawing may not always be present and can vary with the child's activity level, so it should not be expected to be present at all times. Choice B is correct because the lower chest wall should not go in when the child breathes in. Choice C is correct as the lower chest should go in when the child breathes in, indicating chest indrawing. Choice D is correct as a calm child makes it easier to assess chest indrawing, but the absence of chest indrawing does not mean the child is not calm.

5. A client with HIV/AIDS is receiving zidovudine (Retrovir). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anemia. Zidovudine (Retrovir) can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to anemia. Monitoring for signs of anemia, such as fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath, is crucial. Choice A, Hyperglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of zidovudine. Choice C, Hypertension, is not directly associated with zidovudine use. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is also not a typical adverse effect of zidovudine.

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