Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of alcoholism is admitted to the hospital for detoxification. The nurse knows that the client's risk for withdrawal symptoms is greatest within:

• A. 2-4 hours
• B. 4-6 hours
• C. 6-12 hours
• D. 12-24 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 12-24 hours. Withdrawal symptoms typically begin within 12-24 hours after the last drink. This period is when the client is at the highest risk for experiencing withdrawal symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the typical timeline for alcohol withdrawal symptoms to manifest. Symptoms usually peak within the first 24 to 48 hours after the last drink, making the 12-24 hour window critical for monitoring and managing any potential withdrawal complications.

2. What role does a community health nurse play in disaster management?

• A. Providing direct patient care
• B. Conducting research on disaster impacts
• C. Coordinating emergency response efforts
• D. Developing new healthcare policies

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Community health nurses are primarily responsible for coordinating emergency response efforts during disasters. This involves organizing and implementing strategies to address the health needs of the community in crisis situations. Providing direct patient care (Choice A) is often carried out by other healthcare professionals such as doctors and paramedics during disasters. Conducting research on disaster impacts (Choice B) is important for understanding the effects of disasters but is not the primary role of a community health nurse. Developing new healthcare policies (Choice D) is typically the responsibility of policymakers and public health officials rather than community health nurses.

3. A client with terminal cancer is experiencing severe pain. The nurse plans to implement which of the following pain management strategies?

• A. Administer analgesics on a fixed schedule
• B. Administer analgesics only when the client requests
• C. Use non-pharmacological methods only
• D. Increase the dose of analgesics when the client complains of pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering analgesics on a fixed schedule is the most appropriate pain management strategy for a client with terminal cancer experiencing severe pain. This approach ensures consistent pain control and helps prevent breakthrough pain. Administering analgesics only when the client requests (Choice B) may lead to uncontrolled pain as the client may delay requesting medication until the pain becomes unbearable. Using non-pharmacological methods only (Choice C) may not provide adequate pain relief for a client experiencing severe pain. Increasing the dose of analgesics when the client complains of pain (Choice D) may result in inconsistent pain control and could lead to potential overdose or adverse effects.

4. When caring for premature newborns in an intensive care setting, a nurse carefully monitors oxygen concentration. What is the most common complication of this therapy?

• A. Intraventricular hemorrhage
• B. Retinopathy of prematurity
• C. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
• D. Necrotizing enterocolitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Retinopathy of prematurity is the most common complication in premature infants exposed to high concentrations of oxygen. This condition leads to abnormal blood vessel growth in the retina, which can potentially result in blindness if not managed promptly. Intraventricular hemorrhage, though a significant concern in premature infants, is not directly related to oxygen therapy. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia is primarily associated with mechanical ventilation and oxygen exposure over time, not specifically with oxygen concentration monitoring. Necrotizing enterocolitis is more linked to gastrointestinal issues and is not the most common complication of oxygen therapy in premature newborns.

5. A 14-month-old had cleft palate surgical repair several days ago. The parents ask the nurse about feedings after discharge. Which lunch is the best example of an appropriate meal?

• A. Hot dog, carrot sticks, gelatin, milk
• B. Soup, blenderized soft foods, ice cream, milk
• C. Peanut butter and jelly sandwich, chips, pudding, milk
• D. Baked chicken, applesauce, cookie, milk

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B, 'Soup, blenderized soft foods, ice cream, milk,' is the correct answer. After cleft palate repair, it is essential to provide soft and blenderized foods to prevent trauma to the surgical site and promote proper healing. Choices A, C, and D contain foods that may be difficult for the child to consume comfortably and safely after a cleft palate surgical repair. A hot dog, carrot sticks, chips, and hard cookies could potentially cause injury or discomfort to the surgical area. Peanut butter and jelly sandwich might be too difficult to swallow or may stick to the surgical site. Baked chicken could be too challenging to chew. Therefore, the best choice for an appropriate meal post cleft palate repair is soft, blenderized foods like soup, along with other soft options like ice cream and milk.

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