Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of alcoholism is admitted to the hospital for detoxification. The nurse knows that the client's risk for withdrawal symptoms is greatest within:

• A. 2-4 hours
• B. 4-6 hours
• C. 6-12 hours
• D. 12-24 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 12-24 hours. Withdrawal symptoms typically begin within 12-24 hours after the last drink. This period is when the client is at the highest risk for experiencing withdrawal symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the typical timeline for alcohol withdrawal symptoms to manifest. Symptoms usually peak within the first 24 to 48 hours after the last drink, making the 12-24 hour window critical for monitoring and managing any potential withdrawal complications.

2. A client with HIV/AIDS is receiving zidovudine (Retrovir). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Anemia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anemia. Zidovudine (Retrovir) can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to anemia. Monitoring for signs of anemia, such as fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath, is crucial. Choice A, Hyperglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of zidovudine. Choice C, Hypertension, is not directly associated with zidovudine use. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is also not a typical adverse effect of zidovudine.

3. While assessing an Rh-positive newborn whose mother is Rh-negative, the nurse recognizes the risk for hyperbilirubinemia. Which of the following should be reported immediately?

• A. Jaundice evident at 26 hours
• B. Hematocrit of 55%
• C. Serum bilirubin of 12 mg/dL
• D. Positive Coombs test

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum bilirubin level of 12 mg/dL in a newborn is concerning and can indicate a significant risk of hyperbilirubinemia, which requires immediate medical intervention to prevent complications like kernicterus. Jaundice at 26 hours (Choice A) is a symptom, not a laboratory result, and needs monitoring but not an immediate report. Hematocrit of 55% (Choice B) may be elevated but is not indicative of hyperbilirubinemia. A positive Coombs test (Choice D) indicates the presence of antibodies on the newborn's red blood cells but does not directly correlate with the risk of hyperbilirubinemia.

4. The nurse is teaching a group of adults about modifiable cardiac risk factors. Which of the following should the nurse focus on first?

• A. Weight reduction
• B. Stress management
• C. Physical exercise
• D. Smoking cessation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, smoking cessation. Smoking is a major and modifiable risk factor for cardiovascular disease. It is often the highest priority in cardiac risk reduction because stopping smoking has immediate and long-term benefits for heart health. Choices A, B, and C are also important in reducing cardiac risk factors, but smoking cessation takes precedence due to its significant impact on cardiovascular health.

5. Which of the following is an example of a social determinant of health?

• A. Blood pressure
• B. Genetic mutations
• C. Housing conditions
• D. Age

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Housing conditions. Social determinants of health are the conditions in which people are born, grow, live, work, and age. Housing conditions directly impact health outcomes as they can affect exposure to toxins, safety, and overall well-being. Choice A, blood pressure, is a physiological measure and not a social determinant. Choice B, genetic mutations, relates to an individual's genetic makeup and is not influenced by social factors. Choice D, age, is a demographic factor and not a social determinant of health.

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