Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of alcoholism is admitted to the hospital for detoxification. The nurse knows that the client's risk for withdrawal symptoms is greatest within:

• A. 2-4 hours
• B. 4-6 hours
• C. 6-12 hours
• D. 12-24 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 12-24 hours. Withdrawal symptoms typically begin within 12-24 hours after the last drink. This period is when the client is at the highest risk for experiencing withdrawal symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the typical timeline for alcohol withdrawal symptoms to manifest. Symptoms usually peak within the first 24 to 48 hours after the last drink, making the 12-24 hour window critical for monitoring and managing any potential withdrawal complications.

2. The client with atrial fibrillation is being taught about the use of Coumadin (warfarin) at home. Which of these should be emphasized to the client to avoid?

• A. Large indoor gatherings
• B. Exposure to sunlight
• C. Active physical exercise
• D. Foods rich in vitamin K

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Foods rich in vitamin K. Foods rich in vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of Coumadin (warfarin) by promoting blood clotting. It is crucial for clients on this medication to maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K and avoid sudden dietary changes. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not directly related to the interaction of Coumadin (warfarin) with vitamin K. Large indoor gatherings, exposure to sunlight, and active physical exercise do not have a significant impact on the effectiveness of Coumadin (warfarin) in comparison to the interaction with foods rich in vitamin K.

3. The nurse is teaching childbirth preparation classes. One woman asks about her rights to develop a birthing plan. Which response made by the nurse would be best?

• A. "What is your reason for wanting such a plan?"
• B. "Have you talked with your health care provider about this?"
• C. "Let us discuss your rights as a couple."
• D. "Write your ideal plan for the next class."

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Discussing the rights as a couple allows for open communication and helps ensure that the birthing plan aligns with the couple's preferences and medical advice.

4. The nurse is planning care for a client with pneumococcal pneumonia. Which of the following would be most effective in removing respiratory secretions?

• A. Administration of cough suppressants
• B. Increasing oral fluid intake to 3000 cc per day
• C. Maintaining bed rest with bathroom privileges
• D. Performing chest physiotherapy twice a day

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increasing oral fluid intake to 3000 cc per day is the most effective in removing respiratory secretions in a client with pneumococcal pneumonia. Adequate hydration helps thin secretions, making them easier to expectorate. Administration of cough suppressants (Choice A) may hinder the removal of secretions by suppressing the cough reflex. Maintaining bed rest with bathroom privileges (Choice C) is important but does not directly address the removal of respiratory secretions. Performing chest physiotherapy (Choice D) is beneficial for mobilizing secretions but may not be as effective as increasing fluid intake in thinning and facilitating the removal of secretions.

5. A client with tuberculosis is receiving isoniazid (INH). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hepatotoxicity
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Hypotension
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hepatotoxicity. Isoniazid (INH) can lead to hepatotoxicity, necessitating the monitoring of liver function tests. This adverse effect is characterized by liver damage and dysfunction. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because isoniazid is not typically associated with hyperglycemia, hypotension, or hypokalemia. Therefore, the nurse should focus on assessing for signs and symptoms of hepatotoxicity in a client receiving isoniazid.

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