Nursing Elites

1. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is receiving methotrexate (Rheumatrex). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Leukopenia
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Leukopenia. Methotrexate, used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, can lead to bone marrow suppression, resulting in leukopenia. This condition increases the risk of infections due to decreased white blood cell count. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because methotrexate is not known to cause hyperglycemia, hypertension, or hypokalemia as its primary adverse effects.

2. The nurse is teaching childbirth preparation classes. One woman asks about her rights to develop a birthing plan. Which response made by the nurse would be best?

• A. "What is your reason for wanting such a plan?"
• B. "Have you talked with your health care provider about this?"
• C. "Let us discuss your rights as a couple."
• D. "Write your ideal plan for the next class."

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Discussing the rights as a couple allows for open communication and helps ensure that the birthing plan aligns with the couple's preferences and medical advice.

3. A client is admitted for COPD. Which finding would require the nurse's immediate attention?

• A. Nausea and vomiting
• B. Restlessness and confusion
• C. Low-grade fever and cough
• D. Irritating cough and liquefied sputum

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Restlessness and confusion are signs of hypoxia and hypercapnia in a client with COPD, indicating that the client's condition may be deteriorating rapidly. Immediate attention is necessary to prevent further complications. Nausea and vomiting (Choice A) may be related to various factors but do not directly indicate respiratory distress. Low-grade fever and cough (Choice C) are common in COPD and may not require immediate intervention. Irritating cough and liquefied sputum (Choice D) are typical symptoms of COPD exacerbation but do not signal an immediate need for attention as restlessness and confusion.

4. A client with a history of hypertension is receiving enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hypercalcemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia as a side effect. ACE inhibitors can cause potassium retention by inhibiting aldosterone secretion, which may result in elevated potassium levels. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is not typically associated with enalapril use. Hypercalcemia (choice C) is also not a common side effect of enalapril. Hypokalemia (choice D) is the opposite of what is expected with enalapril, as it tends to cause potassium retention.

5. A client with tuberculosis is receiving isoniazid (INH). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hepatotoxicity
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Hypotension
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hepatotoxicity. Isoniazid (INH) can lead to hepatotoxicity, necessitating the monitoring of liver function tests. This adverse effect is characterized by liver damage and dysfunction. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because isoniazid is not typically associated with hyperglycemia, hypotension, or hypokalemia. Therefore, the nurse should focus on assessing for signs and symptoms of hepatotoxicity in a client receiving isoniazid.

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