a client with rheumatoid arthritis is receiving methotrexate rheumatrex the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects
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Nursing Elites

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Community Health HESI Test Bank 2023

1. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is receiving methotrexate (Rheumatrex). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Leukopenia. Methotrexate, used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, can lead to bone marrow suppression, resulting in leukopenia. This condition increases the risk of infections due to decreased white blood cell count. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because methotrexate is not known to cause hyperglycemia, hypertension, or hypokalemia as its primary adverse effects.

2. What action is best for the community health nurse to take if the nurse suspects that an infant is being physically abused?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a community health nurse suspects that an infant is being physically abused, the best course of action is to follow agency protocols to report the suspected abuse. This is essential to ensure that the appropriate authorities are informed, and proper interventions can be initiated. Reporting suspicions to the local child abuse reporting hotline (Choice B) can be a part of the agency protocols but may not cover all necessary steps. Educating the child's caregivers about growth and development (Choice C) is not appropriate in cases of suspected abuse, as the immediate focus should be on the safety and well-being of the infant. Calling the police department to have the child removed from the home (Choice D) is not the primary role of the nurse; the proper authorities should handle the removal process after an investigation.

3. Tertiary prevention would best be described as:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tertiary prevention is the stage of prevention that aims at preventing disability and maximizing the use of remaining capacity. Choice A is more aligned with rehabilitation rather than tertiary prevention. Choice B refers to primary prevention by promoting health and preventing diseases. Choice C focuses on rehabilitation specific to alcohol and drug dependence, which is a form of secondary prevention, not tertiary prevention.

4. A client is admitted with the diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). Which of the following lab values would be consistent with this diagnosis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Elevated creatinine phosphokinase (CPK). Elevated CPK levels indicate muscle damage, including damage to the cardiac muscle, which aligns with the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Choice A, low serum albumin, is not directly related to myocardial infarction. Choice B, high serum cholesterol, is more associated with conditions like atherosclerosis rather than acute myocardial infarction. Choice C, abnormally low white blood cell count, is typically not a lab value associated with myocardial infarction; instead, it could suggest other conditions like infections or bone marrow issues.

5. A client with a history of hypertension is receiving enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia as a side effect. ACE inhibitors can cause potassium retention by inhibiting aldosterone secretion, which may result in elevated potassium levels. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is not typically associated with enalapril use. Hypercalcemia (choice C) is also not a common side effect of enalapril. Hypokalemia (choice D) is the opposite of what is expected with enalapril, as it tends to cause potassium retention.

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