HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Test Bank 2023
1. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is receiving methotrexate (Rheumatrex). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Leukopenia
- B. Hyperglycemia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Leukopenia. Methotrexate, used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, can lead to bone marrow suppression, resulting in leukopenia. This condition increases the risk of infections due to decreased white blood cell count. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because methotrexate is not known to cause hyperglycemia, hypertension, or hypokalemia as its primary adverse effects.
2. A client tells the nurse he is fearful of planned surgery because of evil thoughts about a family member. What is the best initial response by the nurse?
- A. Call a chaplain
- B. Deny the feelings
- C. Cite recovery statistics
- D. Listen to the client
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to listen to the client. Listening allows the nurse to establish therapeutic communication, understand the client's fears and concerns, provide emotional support, and help alleviate anxiety. Calling a chaplain (Choice A) may be appropriate if the client requests spiritual support but should not be the initial response. Denying the feelings (Choice B) is dismissive and can hinder trust and communication. Citing recovery statistics (Choice C) is irrelevant and does not address the client's immediate emotional needs.
3. Which of these clients would the triage nurse request the healthcare provider to examine immediately?
- A. A 5-month-old infant with audible wheezing and grunting
- B. An adolescent with soot on the face and shirt
- C. A middle-aged man with second-degree burns on the right hand
- D. A toddler with singed ends of long hair extending to the waist
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Audible wheezing and grunting in an infant indicate respiratory distress, which is a critical condition requiring immediate assessment and intervention by the healthcare provider. Choices B, C, and D do not present with immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent evaluation. Soot on the face and shirt, second-degree burns on the hand, and singed hair, while concerning, do not pose an immediate threat to life compared to respiratory distress in an infant.
4. To individualize care for a client and ensure maximum participation in that care, what should the nurse consider as the most important factor in planning the said care?
- A. environment
- B. educational attainment
- C. health beliefs and practices
- D. health status
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: health beliefs and practices. Health beliefs and practices directly influence a client's willingness and ability to participate in care. Understanding a client's health beliefs and practices helps the nurse tailor the care plan to align with the client's values and preferences. Choice A, environment, though important, may not be the most critical factor in individualizing care. Choice B, educational attainment, is relevant but not as significant as understanding the client's health beliefs and practices. Choice D, health status, is essential but does not address the individualization of care and maximizing participation as directly as health beliefs and practices.
5. A client with peptic ulcer disease is receiving ranitidine (Zantac). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Constipation
- C. Diarrhea
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diarrhea. Ranitidine, which is used to treat peptic ulcer disease, can lead to gastrointestinal disturbances such as diarrhea. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypertension and hypotension are not common side effects of ranitidine. Constipation is also not a typical side effect associated with ranitidine use.
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