a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease copd is prescribed tiotropium the nurse should instruct the client to report which potential side
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Pharmacology HESI 2023

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed tiotropium. The nurse should instruct the client to report which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry mouth. Tiotropium, a commonly prescribed medication for COPD, can cause dry mouth as a side effect. While it may not be severe, clients should report it if it becomes bothersome. Dry mouth is a common side effect of tiotropium due to its anticholinergic properties. Blurred vision, nausea, and tachycardia are not typically associated with tiotropium use in the context of COPD.

2. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine, the nurse should monitor for weight gain as a potential side effect. Olanzapine is known to cause metabolic changes that can lead to weight gain, making it crucial for the nurse to closely monitor the client's weight during treatment. This side effect is significant as it can impact the client's overall health and well-being, so early detection and intervention are essential to manage it effectively.

3. The practical nurse (PN) is obtaining the medical history of a client starting a new prescription for conjugated estrogens PO daily. Which medical condition is not treated by this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Conjugated estrogens, such as Premarin, are not used in the treatment of thromboembolic diseases. These medications are contraindicated in conditions predisposing to thromboembolic diseases due to their association with an increased risk of thromboembolism, stroke, pulmonary embolism, and myocardial infarction. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because conjugated estrogens are commonly prescribed for managing menopausal symptoms, abnormal uterine bleeding, and certain hormone-responsive cancers, but not for thromboembolic diseases.

4. When a client with hepatic encephalopathy is receiving lactulose, which parameter is essential to monitor for a response to the drug?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In hepatic encephalopathy, the goal of lactulose therapy is to reduce blood ammonia levels by promoting its excretion in the stool. Therefore, monitoring serum electrolytes and ammonia levels is crucial to assess the effectiveness of lactulose in lowering ammonia levels and improving the client's condition. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because serum hepatic enzymes, fingerstick glucose, and stool color/character are not directly related to monitoring the response to lactulose therapy in hepatic encephalopathy.

5. A male client receives a scopolamine transdermal patch 2 hours before surgery. Four hours after surgery, the client tells the nurse that he is experiencing pain and asks why the patch is not working. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Scopolamine is not a pain medication; it is commonly used to prevent nausea and vomiting, particularly in surgical settings. It works on the central nervous system to help control these symptoms, not to relieve pain. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to explain to the client that the medication is not intended to relieve pain but rather to manage other specific symptoms. Checking the correct placement of the patch is also important to ensure proper administration, but addressing the misconception about the medication's purpose is the priority in this scenario. Offering to apply a new patch would not address the client's pain as scopolamine is not meant for pain relief. Advising the client that the effects have worn off is inaccurate because the medication is not used for pain management.

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