HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test Pharmacology
1. When planning to administer the antiulcer GI agent sucralfate, what instruction should the nurse provide regarding administration?
- A. Administer sucralfate once a day
- B. Assess for secondary candida infection
- C. Monitor electrolyte imbalance
- D. Give sucralfate on an empty stomach
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Sucralfate is most effective when taken on an empty stomach. This allows the medication to form a protective layer over the ulcer, promoting healing and symptom relief. Administering sucralfate with or after meals may reduce its efficacy as it may bind to food instead of coating the ulcer site.
2. A client is prescribed metoprolol. The nurse should monitor for which common side effect of this medication?
- A. Dizziness
- B. Fatigue
- C. Orthostatic hypotension
- D. Headache
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dizziness. Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, can lead to dizziness as a common side effect due to its mechanism of action in reducing heart rate and blood pressure. This effect can cause a sensation of lightheadedness or unsteadiness, particularly when standing up quickly. While fatigue, orthostatic hypotension, and headache are potential side effects of metoprolol, dizziness is commonly observed and should be closely monitored by the nurse to ensure patient safety.
3. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed fluvoxamine. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?
- A. Drowsiness
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Insomnia
- D. Headache
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Drowsiness. Fluvoxamine is known to cause drowsiness as a potential side effect. Patients should be advised to avoid activities like driving that require alertness until they understand how the medication affects them. Dry mouth, insomnia, and headache are potential side effects of other medications used for anxiety disorders but are not typically associated with fluvoxamine.
4. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed calcium acetate. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Hypercalcemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed calcium acetate, the nurse must monitor for hypercalcemia, not hypocalcemia, hyperkalemia, or hypokalemia. Calcium acetate can increase calcium levels in the blood, leading to hypercalcemia. Symptoms of hypercalcemia include fatigue, confusion, constipation, and muscle weakness. Regular monitoring of calcium levels is crucial to prevent complications associated with elevated calcium levels.
5. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed linagliptin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Pancreatitis
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Nausea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed linagliptin, the nurse should monitor for pancreatitis as a potential adverse effect. Linagliptin has been associated with rare cases of pancreatitis; therefore, monitoring for signs and symptoms of pancreatitis such as severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting is crucial to ensure timely intervention and management.
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