the nurse is planning to administer the antiulcer gi agent sucralfate plan of care
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Practice Test Pharmacology

1. When planning to administer the antiulcer GI agent sucralfate, what instruction should the nurse provide regarding administration?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sucralfate is most effective when taken on an empty stomach. This allows the medication to form a protective layer over the ulcer, promoting healing and symptom relief. Administering sucralfate with or after meals may reduce its efficacy as it may bind to food instead of coating the ulcer site.

2. The healthcare professional is creating a class for older adults in the community. Which information about laxative use in older adults would be important to include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: It is important to include information about the misuse of over-the-counter laxatives in older adults as they often misuse these medications, which can lead to dependency and other health issues. Option A is incorrect as laxatives can be effective in older adults when used appropriately. Option B is incorrect because not all laxatives are the same, they have different mechanisms of action and side effects. Option D is incorrect because laxatives can actually cause electrolyte imbalances like potassium depletion rather than retention.

3. A client with pulmonary tuberculosis has been taking rifampin for 3 weeks. The client reports orange urine. What should be the nurse's next action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client reports orange urine after taking rifampin is to inform the client that this change is not harmful. Rifampin is known to cause orange discoloration of urine, which is a harmless side effect. There is no need to notify the health care provider as this is an expected outcome. Monitoring creatinine levels or assessing for nephrotoxicity is unnecessary in this situation, as rifampin does not typically cause kidney damage.

4. What action should the nurse implement for a female client taking the bisphosphonate medication ibandronate for osteoporosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ensuring correct administration of bisphosphonates, like ibandronate, is essential to maximize effectiveness and minimize potential side effects. By asking the client to describe how she takes the medication, the nurse can assess the client's understanding and adherence to the prescribed regimen, ultimately promoting optimal therapeutic outcomes.

5. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed warfarin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by prolonging the time it takes for blood to clot. Therefore, a potential adverse effect of warfarin is an increased risk of bleeding. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, nosebleeds, or blood in the urine or stool. Monitoring for these signs is essential to prevent serious complications associated with excessive bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because warfarin does not decrease the risk of bleeding, increase the risk of infection, or decrease the risk of infection. The primary concern with warfarin therapy is the potential for bleeding complications, so close monitoring for signs of bleeding is essential.

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